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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Security Operations | 22% | - Incident response and digital forensics - Vulnerability management and penetration testing concepts - Business continuity and disaster recovery - Threat hunting and intelligence - Monitoring, logging, and SIEM/SOAR operations |
| Topic 2: Security Architecture | 27% | - Zero Trust architecture implementation - Secure network architecture design - Resilient system design - Cloud and hybrid infrastructure security - Security requirements analysis |
| Topic 3: Security Engineering | 31% | - Cryptography and PKI - Security automation and IaC (Infrastructure as Code) - Secure coding practices and secure SDLC - Application security (SAST/DAST/SCA) - Endpoint and mobile security - Identity and access management (IAM) |
| Topic 4: Governance, Risk, and Compliance | 20% | - Compliance and regulatory requirements - Security governance policies and procedures - Business impact analysis - Risk management frameworks and methodologies |
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NEW QUESTION # 34
A company needs to define a new roadmap for improving secure coding practices in the software development life cycle and implementing better security standards. Which of the following is the best way for the company to achieve this goal?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best way is to perform a Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM) assessment. SAMM provides a structured framework to evaluate current software security maturity across people, process, and technology. The assessment highlights gaps and generates a roadmap tailored to the organization's development environment.
Option B (threat modeling) only applies to specific applications, not the entire SDLC process. Option C risks misalignment with technical practices by relying only on CISO goals. Option D (OWASP secure coding manual) is useful but provides guidelines, not a maturity-based roadmap.
CAS-005 stresses leveraging maturity models for structured, measurable improvements. SAMM directly addresses this by producing a customized, actionable roadmap for secure coding practices.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A security engineer wants to enhance the security posture of end-user systems in a zero trust environment. Given the following requirements:
- Reduce the ability for potentially compromised endpoints to contact
C2 infrastructure.
- Track the requests that the malware makes to the IPs.
- Avoid the download of additional payloads.
Which of the following should the engineer deploy to meet these requirements?
Answer: D
Explanation:
DNS sinkholing is the best solution to meet these requirements. By redirecting malicious DNS requests (such as those from compromised endpoints attempting to contact command and control (C2) infrastructure) to a "sinkhole" server, the security engineer can prevent communication between the malware and the attacker's infrastructure. Additionally, DNS sinkholing allows for tracking and logging of the requests that the malware attempts to make, while also preventing the malware from downloading additional payloads by blocking these connections.
NEW QUESTION # 36
An organization is required to
* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.
Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization's credibility.
Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:
A . Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
B . Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
D . Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide" ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls"
NEW QUESTION # 37
Company A and Company D ate merging Company A ' s compliance reports indicate branchprotections are not in place A security analyst needs to ensure that potential threats to the software development life cycle are addressed. Which of the following should me analyst cons < der when completing this basic?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure development process.
Why Routine DAST Scans?
Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real-time, ensuring they are addressed promptly.
Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards and regulations.
Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches.
Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a security- first approach.
Other options, while relevant, do not directly address the continuous assessment and proactive identification of threats:
A). If developers are unable to promote to production: This is more of an operational issue than a security assessment.
B). If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository: This concerns code management rather than security testing frequency.
D). If role-based training is deployed: While important, training alone does not ensure continuous security assessment.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
OWASP Testing Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-53, " Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
"
NEW QUESTION # 38
A Chief Information Security Officer requests an action plan to remediate vulnerabilities. A security analyst reviews the output from a recent vulnerability scan and notices hundreds of unique vulnerabilities. The output includes the CVSS score, IP address, hostname, and the list of vulnerabilities. The analyst determines more information is needed in order to decide which vulnerabilities should be fixed immediately. Which of the following is the best source for this information?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 39
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