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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Application Development Environment | - Development tools
|
| Curam Platform Architecture | - Application architecture
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| Testing and Troubleshooting | - Application validation
|
| Customization and Extension | - Custom development
|
| Data Modeling and Server Development | - Entity and business logic development
|
| Client Development | - User interface development
|
>> CS0-004 Latest Test Answers <<
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NEW QUESTION # 71
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is requiring users to phase out a legacy system that no longer receives security updates because the system will be decommissioned soon.
Which of the following risk management strategies is the CIO using?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CIO is implementing risk avoidance because the organization is eliminating the activity or technology that creates the risk. The legacy system no longer receives security updates, so continued operation would maintain exposure to vulnerabilities that may eventually become impossible to remediate. By phasing out and ultimately decommissioning the system, the organization removes that source of risk instead of continuing to operate it under additional controls.
NIST recognizes acceptance, avoidance, mitigation, sharing, and transfer as established risk-response approaches. Avoidance differs from mitigation because mitigation would retain the legacy system while implementing controls that reduce its likelihood or impact-for example, segmentation, strict access controls, application allowlisting, or enhanced monitoring.
Risk acceptance would involve deliberately continuing to operate the system after management acknowledges and approves the remaining exposure. Risk transference would shift some financial or operational consequences to another party, such as through insurance or contractual arrangements.
The phrase "phase out" is the decisive indicator. The organization intends to stop using the risk-producing technology entirely, making avoidance the most precise classification.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Risk Management # Risk Responses # Avoidance # Mitigation # Acceptance # Transference # Legacy and End-of-Life Systems.
NEW QUESTION # 72
A security analyst isolates a Windows 11 workstation from the network after known malware is detected. The list of security information and event management (SIEM) events during the malware installation and timeline does not identify a specific user who was logged in. The security analyst uses the local administrative account to log in and would like a list of logins to the machine.
Which of the following PowerShell commands should the analyst use?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Windows Security Event ID 4624 records a successful logon session. Therefore, querying the Security log for event 4624 provides the analyst with historical evidence of successful logins to the affected workstation.
Get-WinEvent is the appropriate PowerShell cmdlet for retrieving Windows event records. The FilterHashtable parameter allows efficient server-side filtering using attributes such as LogName and ID, rather than retrieving an entire event log and filtering the results afterward. Microsoft specifically documents LogName and ID as valid FilterHashtable keys and recommends this approach for efficient event-log querying.
The command then uses Sort-Object TimeCreated -Descending so the newest login events appear first, and Export-Csv preserves the resulting records for investigation.
Option A does not use the correct PowerShell event-query syntax shown. Options C and D search inappropriate log channels and unrelated event IDs. The evidence needed is authentication history, making the Windows Security log and successful-logon identifier 4624 the correct combination.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Evidence Collection # Windows Event Logs
# PowerShell # Get-WinEvent # Security Event ID 4624 # Timeline Reconstruction.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following best describes the action a technical team should take during the containment phase of a security breach?
Answer: D
Explanation:
During the containment phase, the primary objective is to limit the spread and impact of the security incident by isolating affected systems or segments of the network. Creating automation scripts that can immediately isolate compromised hosts or block malicious activity helps rapidly contain the breach and prevent further damage.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following is the best option for an IT administrator to deploy to ensure standardized permissions to a cloud environment?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Automated onboarding tasks help ensure that users are consistently assigned the correct roles, groups, and permissions when they are provisioned in a cloud environment. This standardization reduces configuration errors, enforces access policies, and supports role-based access control across cloud resources.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Hotspot Question
A systems administrator is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the information in each tab.
Based on the organization's environment architecture and remediation standards, select the server to be patched within 14 days and select the appropriate technique and mitigation.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
192.168.60.90 is an operations server with a CVSS score of 8.1, requiring remediation within 14 calendar days. Restricting the server to modern cipher suites directly mitigates the identified TLS downgrade vulnerability.
NEW QUESTION # 76
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