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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Security Operations | approx. 25% | - Incident response and recovery - Security monitoring and analysis - Threat management and response |
| Topic 2: Security Architecture | approx. 21% | - Secure enterprise architecture design - Secure system design principles - Cloud and hybrid environment security |
| Topic 3: Governance, Risk, and Compliance | approx. 22% | - Business continuity and disaster recovery planning - Risk management frameworks - Security policies and compliance requirements |
| Topic 4: Security Engineering and Cryptography | approx. 23% | - Cryptographic solutions and implementations - Secure network and system engineering - Identity and access management design |
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NEW QUESTION # 137
A company is having issues with its vulnerability management program New devices/lPs are added and dropped regularly, making the vulnerability report inconsistent Which of the following actions should the company lake to most likely improve the vulnerability management process'
Answer: D
Explanation:
To improve the vulnerability management process in an environment where new devices/IPs are added and dropped regularly, the company should perform regular discovery scanning throughout the IT landscape using the vulnerability management tool. Here's why:
* Accurate Asset Inventory: Regular discovery scans help maintain an up-to-date inventory of all assets, ensuring that the vulnerability management process includes all relevant devices and IPs.
* Consistency in Reporting: By continuously discovering and scanning new and existing assets, the company can generate consistent and comprehensive vulnerability reports that reflect the current state of the network.
* Proactive Management: Regular scans enable the organization to proactively identify and address vulnerabilities on new and existing assets, reducing the window of exposure to potential threats.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies
* CIS Controls: Control 1 - Inventory and Control of Hardware Assets
NEW QUESTION # 138
During a recent audit, a company's systems were assessed- Given the following information:
Which of the following is the best way to reduce the attack surface?
Answer: C
Explanation:
SecurityX CAS-005 network architecture objectives emphasize limiting exposure of vulnerable systems by using application-aware firewalls with strict rule sets.
* This approach directly reduces the attack surface by allowing only approved application traffic to and from the vulnerable systems, mitigating risk until systems are patched or replaced.
* EDR (A) enhances detection but doesn't inherently reduce the exposed services.
* Network segmentation in monitor mode (B) doesn't block threats.
* IDS (C) detects activity but does not block it.
NEW QUESTION # 139
A company isolated its OT systems from other areas of the corporate network These systems are required to report usage information over the internet to the vendor Which oi the following b*st reduces the risk of compromise or sabotage' (Select two).
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
A: Implementing allow lists: Allow lists (whitelisting) restrict network communication to only authorized devices and applications, significantly reducing the attack surface by ensuring that only pre-approved traffic is permitted.
F: Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN: A site-to-site VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel for data transmission between the OT systems and the vendor, protecting the data from interception and tampering during transit.
Other options:
B: Monitoring network behavior: While useful for detecting anomalies, it does not proactively reduce the risk of compromise or sabotage.
C: Encrypting data at rest: Important for protecting data stored on devices, but does not address network communication risks.
D: Performing boot integrity checks: Ensures the integrity of the system at startup but does not protect ongoing network communications.
E: Executing daily health checks: Useful for maintaining system health but does not directly reduce the risk of network-based compromise or sabotage.
NEW QUESTION # 140
A user reports application access issues to the help desk. The help desk reviews the logs for the user
Which of the following is most likely The reason for the issue?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Based on the provided logs, the user has accessed various applications from different geographic locations within a very short timeframe. This pattern is indicative of the "impossible travel" security rule, a common feature in Single Sign-On (SSO) systems designed to detect and prevent fraudulent access attempts.
Analysis of Logs:
At 8:47 p.m., the user accessed a VPN from Toronto.
At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed email from Los Angeles.
At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed the human resources system from Los Angeles.
At 8:49 p.m., the user accessed email again from Los Angeles.
At 8:52 p.m., the user attempted to access the human resources system from Toronto, which was denied.
These rapid changes in location are physically impossible and typically trigger security measures to prevent unauthorized access. The SSO system detected these inconsistencies and likely flagged the activity as suspicious, resulting in access denial.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"
"Impossible Travel Detection," Microsoft Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 141
A security engineer discovers that some legacy systems are still in use or were not properly decommissioned.
After further investigation, the engineer identifies that an unknown and potentially malicious server is also sending emails on behalf of the company. The security engineer extracts the following data for review:
Which of the following actions should the security engineer take next? (Select two).
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The presence of an unauthorized server (29mail.mycrosoft.info) sending emails on behalf of the company indicates a potential spoofing or phishing attempt. To mitigate this:
* Remove the unnecessary servers from the SPF record (Option C): The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) specifies which mail servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of a domain. Removing unauthorized or unnecessary servers from the SPF record helps prevent spoofed emails from passing SPF checks.
* Change the SPF record to enforce the hard fail parameter (Option D): Setting the SPF policy to a hard fail (-all) ensures that emails from unauthorized servers are rejected, enhancing email security.
Implementing these changes strengthens the domain's email authentication mechanisms, reducing the risk of successful phishing or spoofing attacks.
Reference: CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2: "Given a scenario, analyze requirements to enhance the security of endpoints and servers."
NEW QUESTION # 142
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