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NEW QUESTION # 156
A security engineer wants to stay up-to-date on new detections that are released on a regular basis. The engineer's organization uses multiple tools rather than one specific vendor security stack. Which of the following rule-based languages is the most appropriate to use as a baseline for detection rules with the multiple security tool setup?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Step-by-Step Explanation:
Sigma (A) is a rule-based detection language that is vendor-agnostic, meaning it can be used across different SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) tools. Unlike YARA (B), which focuses on file-based detection, Sigma provides a standardized way to create rules that work across various security platforms.
NEW QUESTION # 157
A multinational enterprise is planning to implement a centralized authentication solution across its global offices. The risk team identifies that some regional offices operate in areas with high latency and some data centers experience intermittent connectivity issues. The Chief Information Officer requests a solution that minimizes authentication disruptions without compromising security. Which of the following is the best risk treatment strategy?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hybrid identity architecture allows authentication services to operate both centrally and locally.
Local authentication services or cached credentials provide failover capability when connectivity to central identity infrastructure is disrupted due to latency or intermittent network issues. This approach maintains strong centralized identity management while ensuring users in remote regions can still authenticate securely during connectivity interruptions, minimizing operational disruption without weakening security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 158
Third parties notified a company's security team about vulnerabilities in the company's application. The security team determined these vulnerabilities were previously disclosed in third-party libraries. Which of the following solutions best addresses the reported vulnerabilities?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best solution to address reported vulnerabilities in third-party libraries is integrating a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool as part of the development pipeline. Here's why:
Early Detection: SAST tools analyze source code for vulnerabilities before the code is compiled. This allows developers to identify and fix security issues early in the development process.
Continuous Security: By integrating SAST tools into the CI/CD pipeline, the organization ensures continuous security assessment of the codebase, including third-party libraries, with each code commit and build.
Comprehensive Analysis: SAST tools provide a detailed analysis of the code, identifying potential vulnerabilities in both proprietary code and third-party dependencies, ensuring that known issues in libraries are addressed promptly.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
OWASP Static Analysis Security Testing (SAST) Cheat Sheet
NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
NEW QUESTION # 159
A company recently experienced an incident in which an advanced threat actor was able to shim malicious code against the hardware static of a domain controller The forensic team cryptographically validated that com the underlying firmware of the box and the operating system had not been compromised. However, the attacker was able to exfiltrate information from the server using a steganographic technique within LOAP Which of the following is me b»« way to reduce the risk oi reoccurrence?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario describes a sophisticated attack where the threat actor used steganography within LDAP to exfiltrate data. Given that thehardware and OS firmware were validated and found uncompromised, the attack vector likely exploited a network communication channel. To mitigate such risks, enforcing allow lists for authorized network ports and protocols is the most effective strategy.
Here's why this option is optimal:
Port and Protocol Restrictions: By creating an allow list, the organization can restrict communications to only those ports and protocols that are necessary for legitimate business operations. This reduces the attack surface by preventing unauthorized or unusual traffic.
Network Segmentation: Enforcing such rules helps in segmenting the network and ensuring that only approved communications occur, which is critical in preventing data exfiltration methods like steganography.
Preventing Unauthorized Access: Allow lists ensure that only predefined, trusted connections are allowed, blocking potential paths that attackers could use to infiltrate or exfiltrate data.
Other options, while beneficial in different contexts, are not directly addressing the network communication threat:
B . Measuring and attesting to the entire boot chain: While this improves system integrity, it doesn't directly mitigate the risk of data exfiltration through network channels.
C . Rolling thecryptographic keys used for hardware security modules: This is useful for securing data and communications but doesn't directly address the specific method of exfiltration described.
D . Using code signing to verify the source of OS updates: Ensures updates are from legitimate sources, but it doesn't mitigate the risk of network-based data exfiltration.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-41, "Guidelines on Firewalls and Firewall Policy" CIS Controls Version 8, Control 9: Limitation and Control of Network Ports, Protocols, and Services
NEW QUESTION # 160
A security analyst is reviewing the following vulnerability assessment report:
192.168.1.5, Host = Server1, CVSS 7.5, Web Server, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = Yes
205.1.3.5, Host = Server2, CVSS 6.5, Bind Server, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = POC
207.1.5.7, Host = Server3, CVSS 5.5, Email Server, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = Yes
192.168.1.6, Host = Server4, CVSS 9.8, Domain Controller, Remotely Executable = Yes, Exploit = Yes Which of the following should be patched first to minimize attacks against internet-facing hosts?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question focuses oninternet-facing hosts, implying external exposure. CVSS scores, remote executability, and exploitavailability guide prioritization. Server2 (205.1.3.5, CVSS 6.5, Bind Server) has a public IP, suggesting it's internet-facing, unlike Server1 and Server4 (192.168.x.x, private IPs). Server3 (207.1.5.7, CVSS 5.5) is also public but has a lower score and risk compared to Server2's proof-of-concept (POC) exploit. Server2's Bind Server (DNS) role is critical and commonly targeted, making it the priority.
* Option A:Server1 (CVSS 7.5) is private, not internet-facing.
* Option B:Server2 (CVSS 6.5) is internet-facing with an exploit POC, warranting immediate patching.
* Option C:Server3 (CVSS 5.5) is internet-facing but less severe.
* Option D:Server4 (CVSS 9.8) is critical but private, not internet-facing.
Reference:CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Domain 1: Risk Management - Vulnerability Prioritization.
NEW QUESTION # 161
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