CS0-004 Exam Outline - Test CS0-004 Guide Online

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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Vulnerability Management	26%	- Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Application security 2. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 3. Control types 4. Third-party risk 5. Risk concepts 6. Control functions 7. Risk management strategies - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Validation of remediation 2. Vulnerability prioritization criteria 3. Context awareness 4. Scoring methods 5. Mitigation strategies - Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Security baseline scanning 2. Scan types 3. Planning considerations 4. Asset inventory 5. Discovery - Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Breach attack simulation tools 2. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools 3. Multipurpose tools 4. Network scanning and mapping 5. Vulnerability scanners 6. Web application scanners
Topic 2: Security Operations	34%	- Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI risks 2. AI use cases 3. AI governance - Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 2. Indicators of compromise 3. Threat actors 4. Confidence-level impacts 5. Cyber deception 6. Threat modeling 7. Threat mapping 8. Collection methods and sources - System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Critical infrastructure concepts 2. Data protection concepts 3. Encryption techniques 4. Device management concepts 5. Operating system concepts 6. Logging concepts 7. Network architecture concepts 8. Identity and access management 9. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts - Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Technology and tool integration 2. Data enrichment 3. Streamline operations 4. Standardize processes 5. Automation and orchestration - Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis 2. User and entity behavior analysis 3. Log analysis and SIEM 4. Decoding and parsing 5. File analysis 6. Packet analysis 7. Threat intelligence platforms 8. Email analysis 9. Programming and scripting languages 10. File formats 11. Domain and IP reputation 12. Endpoint security 13. Sandboxing - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Email-related attacks 2. Application-related indicators 3. Social engineering attacks 4. Host-related indicators 5. Network-related indicators 6. Identity-based indicators 7. Cloud-related indicators 8. Unauthorized configuration
Topic 3: Incident Response and Management	24%	- Incident Response Techniques 1. Restoration 2. Isolation and escalation 3. Evidence gathering and preservation 4. Remediation and verification 5. Incident response and communication plans 6. Root cause analysis 7. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 8. Alerts, notifications, and triage 9. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment 10. Playbooks and roles 11. Corrective action development 12. Training and exercises - Incident Response Process 1. Analysis 2. Eradication 3. Detection 4. Preparation 5. Containment 6. Post-incident activities 7. Recovery - Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 2. MITRE ATT&CK 3. Cyber Kill Chain
Topic 4: Reporting and Communication	16%	- Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Vulnerability scan reports 2. Inhibitors to remediation 3. Metrics and key performance indicators 4. Stakeholder identification and communication 5. Compliance findings 6. Action plans 7. Risk scorecards - Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Communication plan 2. Post-incident reporting 3. Executive summary 4. Incident declaration and escalation 5. Metrics and key performance indicators 6. Internal threat intelligence report 7. Shift and incident handover 8. Operational security awareness

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q140-Q145):

NEW QUESTION # 140
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is notified of an ongoing incident. Which of the following explains why the CISO instructs the Chief Executive Officer not to discuss the incident over email?

A. The email system may be compromised.
B. The security team discovered a vulnerability in the Short Message Service email gateway.
C. The CISO has not notified the public relations team of the incident.
D. Emails are not encrypted in transit.

Answer: A

Explanation:
During an active incident, attackers may be monitoring a compromised email system. Incident communications should therefore use a secure, out-of-band channel.

NEW QUESTION # 141
Before merging with a software company, the acquiring company's legal team requires a detailed software scan to determine if all code base is using open-source or paid licensed libraries. The vulnerability management analyst needs to provide this report.
Which of the following scan methods will best meet this requirement?

A. Dynamic application security testing (DAST)
B. Runtime application self-protection (RASP)
C. Static application security testing (SAST)
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan
E. Software composition analysis (SCA)

Answer: E

Explanation:
Software Composition Analysis (SCA) is specifically designed to identify third-party and open-source components incorporated into software. It can enumerate libraries and dependencies, identify their versions, associate components with known vulnerabilities, and provide licensing information. This directly satisfies the legal team's requirement to determine whether the codebase contains open-source or commercially licensed libraries.
CISA's software supply-chain guidance recognizes software composition analysis and software bills of materials as mechanisms for obtaining visibility into software components. CISA guidance also notes that SBOM information can include both open-source and commercial third-party software and licensing information.
SAST examines source or compiled code for security weaknesses such as unsafe functions, data-flow problems, or coding vulnerabilities, but dependency licensing is not its primary purpose. DAST tests a running application from the outside and generally cannot inventory the complete component dependency tree. RASP operates within a running application to detect or prevent attacks. Credentialed infrastructure scanning identifies system-level vulnerabilities and configuration issues rather than software-license composition.
The strongest clue is the requirement to identify libraries and their licensing status , which directly maps to SCA.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Application Security Testing # SCA # Third-Party Components # Open-Source Dependencies # SBOM # Licensing and Vulnerability Analysis.

NEW QUESTION # 142
Which of the following best explains the importance of communicating unusual alert findings?

A. To ensure activities are properly investigated
B. To provide better metrics related to activities
C. To identify who found the activity
D. To define how each activity is triaged

Answer: A

Explanation:
Communicating unusual alert findings ensures that potentially significant security activities receive appropriate attention and investigation. What initially appears unusual may indicate a developing threat, compromise, or control failure, and timely communication helps analysts validate, investigate, and respond before the issue escalates.

NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following is the IR activity in which process gaps are identified?

A. Tabletop exercise
B. Root cause analysis
C. Lessons learned
D. User training

Answer: C

Explanation:
The lessons learned phase occurs after an incident has been contained and resolved. During this phase, the response team reviews what happened, evaluates the effectiveness of the response, and identifies process gaps, weaknesses, and opportunities for improvement to enhance future incident handling.

NEW QUESTION # 144
A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:

Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

A. Perform log correlation.
B. Establish a timeline.
C. Reset user credentials.
D. Restore files from backup.
E. Establish a legal hold.

Answer: E

Explanation:
The analyst should first establish a legal hold because the suspected breach involves personnel records and evidence that may become relevant to regulatory, disciplinary, civil, or other legal proceedings. A legal hold prevents potentially relevant information from being deleted, overwritten, modified, rotated out under normal retention schedules, or otherwise destroyed before the organization's legal and investigative obligations are understood.
Preservation must precede destructive or potentially evidence-altering actions. NIST describes digital forensics as retrieving, storing, and analyzing electronic information while ensuring that evidence is captured reliably without alteration. RFC 3227 similarly emphasizes preserving evidence, following proper collection procedures, documenting handling, and maintaining chain of custody.
Log correlation and timeline construction are important investigative activities, but they should occur after preservation requirements have been established. Resetting credentials may subsequently be required for containment, but the scenario first raises an evidence-preservation obligation. Restoring files from backup would be especially premature because it could alter timestamps, overwrite artifacts, or otherwise complicate forensic analysis.
The examination principle is therefore preserve first when legal implications are reasonably foreseeable; analyze and remediate afterward under controlled procedures .
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Evidence Acquisition # Legal Hold # Evidence Preservation # Chain of Custody # Timeline Analysis # Regulatory/Legal Considerations.

NEW QUESTION # 145
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