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| Certification Vendor: | EC-COUNCIL |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | EC-Council Digital Forensics Essentials (DFE) |
| Exam Number: | 112-57 |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Real Exam Qty: | 75 |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Related Certifications: | Ethical Hacking Essentials (EHE) Network Defense Essentials (NDE) |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Passing Score: | 70% |
| Exam Format: | Multiple Choice Questions |
| Exam Price: | Free / $0 USD |
| Recommended Training: | Official Digital Forensics Essentials Course |
| Exam Registration: | EC-Council Exam Center |
| Sample Questions: | EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online proctored exam / Authorized testing centers |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites; basic IT knowledge recommended |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.eccouncil.org/train-certify/digital-forensics-essentials-dfe/ |
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NEW QUESTION # 54
A government organization decided to establish a computer forensics lab to perform transparent investigation processes on highly sensitive cases. The organization also decided to establish strong physical security around the premises of the forensics lab.
Which of the following security measures helps the organization in providing strong physical security to the forensics lab?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Forensics labs handling highly sensitive investigations must protect evidence confidentiality and prevent unauthorized disclosure. Strong physical security includes not only access control and surveillance, but also protections againstelectromagnetic (EM) emanationrisks. Computers and displays can unintentionally emit electromagnetic signals that, under certain conditions, may be intercepted and reconstructed to reveal sensitive information (for example, case notes, recovered evidence content, or credentials). Digital forensics lab design guidance recognizes this as a real threat in high-sensitivity environments and recommendsEM shielding / TEMPEST-style controlswhere appropriate. Shielding workstations reduces the chance of data leakage through side-channel interception and helps ensure that confidential investigative activities cannot be monitored from outside controlled areas.
The other options directly weaken physical security and safety. Fire extinguishers are required for facility safety and risk management, so "never place" them is unsafe and contrary to secure lab standards. Not maintaining an entrance log register undermines chain-of-custody support and accountability by removing a basic access auditing mechanism. "Never keep the lab under surveillance" removes a core deterrent and detection control for unauthorized entry, evidence tampering, and theft. Therefore, shielding workstations from transmitting electromagnetic signals is the only option thatstrengthensphysical security for a sensitive forensics lab.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Below are the various steps involved in an email crime investigation.
1.Acquiring the email data
2.Analyzing email headers
3.Examining email messages
4.Recovering deleted email messages
5.Seizing the computer and email accounts
6.Retrieving email headers
What is the correct sequence of steps involved in the investigation of an email crime?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In an email crime investigation, the workflow should begin withseizing the computer and email accounts (5)to preserve evidence and prevent alteration, deletion, or continued misuse. This includes securing endpoints and ensuring account access is maintained under proper authority. Next, investigators proceed withacquiring the email data (1)using forensic methods (logical export, mailbox acquisition, or forensic imaging of local mail stores) to maintain integrity and chain of custody.
Once the data is preserved, investigatorsexamine email messages (3)to identify relevant communications, context, attachments, and indicators of fraud, harassment, data leakage, or impersonation. After identifying emails of interest, investigatorsretrieve email headers (6)(full headers, not just what the mail client displays) because headers contain routing metadata required for attribution and timeline reconstruction. They thenanalyze email headers (2)to interpret fields such as Received lines, Message-ID, originating IP clues (where applicable), sending infrastructure, and authentication results, which helps determine spoofing, relay paths, and sender legitimacy. Finally, theyrecover deleted email messages (4)from mail stores, server-side retention, or unallocated space to restore missing evidence. This sequence matches optionA.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Clark, a security professional, identified that one of the systems in the organization is infected with malware and was used for creating a backdoor. Clark employed an automated tool to analyze the system's memory and detect malicious activities performed on the system.
In the above scenario, which of the following tools did Clark employ to detect malicious activities performed on the system?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question specifies anautomated tool to analyze the system's memoryand detect malicious activity associated with amalware backdoor. In malware forensics and incident response practice, memory analysis is used to identify artifacts that may not be reliably visible on disk, such as injected code, hidden processes, suspicious DLLs/modules, live network connections, persistence objects loaded in memory, and indicators of compromise tied to backdoors.Redline(commonly referenced in DFIR training) is purpose-built forhost investigation and memory analysis. It can collect and analyze volatile data, including running processes, loaded modules, handles, drivers, network sessions, and other runtime indicators that help investigators spot malicious behavior and attribute it to specific executables or injected components.
The other options do not align with memory forensics.Medusais primarily a credential brute-force/login auditing tool, not a memory analysis utility.Shodanis an Internet-wide device search engine used for external reconnaissance, not for local host RAM inspection.Wiresharkis a packet capture and protocol analysis tool focused on network traffic, not automated memory artifact collection and analysis. Therefore, the tool Clark used to analyze memory and detect malicious activity isRedline (B).
NEW QUESTION # 57
Andrew, a system administrator, is performing a UEFI boot process. The current phase of the UEFI boot process consists of the initialization code that the system executes after powering on the EFI system. This phase also manages platform reset events and sets up the system so that it can find, validate, install, and run the PEI.
Which of the following UEFI boot phases is the process currently in?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the UEFI/PI boot architecture, the phase that runsimmediately after power-on or resetis theSEC (Security) phase. Digital forensics references include UEFI phases because firmware-level activity can affect the trustworthiness of the platform (e.g., bootkits, persistence, and measured boot artifacts). The SEC phase is responsible for executing the earliest initialization instructions, handlingplatform reset events, and establishing a minimal, controlled execution environment. Critically, SEC prepares the system so it canlocate, verify, and hand off controlto the next stage-PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization)-by setting up temporary memory and foundational CPU/chipset state required for PEI modules to execute.
The wording in the question precisely matches SEC responsibilities: "initialization code executed after powering on," "manages platform reset events," and "sets up the system so it can find, validate, install, and run the PEI." By contrast,PEIfocuses on discovering and initializing permanent memory and producing the Hand-Off Blocks for DXE;DXEloads drivers and boot services; andBDSselects and launches the boot option.
Therefore, the phase described is theSecurity phase (SEC), which corresponds to optionD.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following layers of the TCP/IP model serves as the backbone for data flow between two devices in a network and enables peer entities on the source and destination devices to communicate with each other?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the TCP/IP model, theTransport layeris responsible forend-to-end communication between peer entitieson the source and destination systems. "Peer entities" here refers to the corresponding transport components (and the applications that use them) on two different hosts communicating across a network. This layer forms the practical "backbone" of host-to-host data flow because it provides the mechanisms that allow data to be deliveredfrom one endpoint process to another endpoint processreliably or efficiently, depending on the protocol used.
The Transport layer includes protocols such asTCPandUDP. TCP supports connection-oriented communication with sequencing, acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control-features that are fundamental when reconstructing sessions during network forensic investigations (e.g., rebuilding a file transfer or a web session). UDP provides connectionless delivery used by many services where speed is preferred over guaranteed delivery, which is also significant in investigations of DNS, streaming, or certain malware communications.
By contrast, theInternet layerfocuses on logical addressing and routing (IP), theNetwork access layerhandles local delivery on the physical/link network, and theApplication layerprovides user-facing protocols.
Therefore, the layer enabling peer communication between endpoints is theTransport layer (C).
NEW QUESTION # 59
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