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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Integration and Security Fabric | 15% | - FortiXDR deployment and configuration - Fortinet Security Fabric integration |
| Events, Forensics, and Threat Hunting | 25% | - Security event and alert analysis - Threat hunting data interpretation - Forensic analysis and incident investigation - Threat hunting profiles and queries |
| Monitoring and Troubleshooting | 10% | - System monitoring and health checks - Performance and issue diagnosis - Log and alert troubleshooting |
| FortiEDR System Architecture and Deployment | 25% | - Multi-tenancy deployment - Inventory management and system tools - API-based management operations - Installation and deployment process - Architecture and technical positioning |
| Security Settings and Policies | 25% | - Playbooks creation and management - Security policies configuration - Fortinet Cloud Service (FCS) integration - Communication control policies |
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NEW QUESTION # 33
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Refer to the exhibit:
You configured an execution prevention exclusion with both File Name = app.exe and Path = C:\Tools. What will FortiEDR do? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Exclude only app.exe when it is running from C:\Tools.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that the Exclusion Manager is used to define which processes, files, or domains are excluded from Security Policies monitoring. For Process Exclusions, FortiEDR does not inspect actions performed by specific processes, and those processes are identified by the attributes defined by the administrator.
The guide further explains that process/source attributes can include File Name, Path, Hash, and Signer. It also states that when an exclusion contains multiple conditions, an AND relationship exists between the conditions. If an OR relationship is required, a separate exclusion must be created.
In this exhibit, both conditions are selected:
File Name = app.exe
Path = C:\Tools
Because FortiEDR applies an AND relationship between multiple exclusion conditions, the exclusion applies only when both conditions match. Therefore, FortiEDR excludes app.exe only when it is located/running from C:\Tools.
Option A is wrong because no Signer condition is selected. Option C is wrong because that would apply if only the file name were used broadly. Option D is wrong because FortiEDR is not excluding every file in C:
\Tools; it is excluding the process that matches both the file name and path conditions.
NEW QUESTION # 35
What action does an on-premises reputation server take when it receives a hash request that is not found in its local database? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that for on-premises deployments, the on-premise reputation service requests missing hashes from the cloud reputation service . If a proxy is not enabled, it requests the missing hashes from the cloud reputation service through the manager nginx . If a proxy is enabled, the on-premises reputation service requests the missing hashes through the proxy.
So, when the local reputation database does not contain the requested hash, the on-premises reputation server does not ignore the request, wait for endpoint input, or automatically block the application. It queries the cloud reputation service for the missing hash reputation data.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 36
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the threat hunting event details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true?
(Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D .
The exhibit shows a Process Creation activity event where cmd.exe is the source process and PING.EXE is the target process. The displayed Executing user is R2D2-KVM63\fortinet, and the command line shows fortinet.com, which means the user fortinet executed a ping command targeting fortinet.com.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting activity events consist of a source , an action , and a target
. It also states that Process Actions have another process as the target and include process-related actions such as Process Creation .
The exhibit also shows file-related details for the executable, including the executable path, product, SHA1 hash, and command line. In FortiEDR Threat Hunting, process execution events are tied to executable-file metadata, so the event is associated with the executable file involved in the process action. This supports B in the exam's intended wording.
Option A is not reliable because the screenshot does not prove MITRE details are unavailable; it only shows that no MITRE detail is visible in the current portion of the details pane. The guide states that MITRE indications appear when an activity event has related MITRE information.
Option C is wrong because the screenshot shows the process status as Running and does not show a block indicator. A green check does not mean blocked; it indicates a trusted/signed/allowed status context. There is no evidence that PING.EXE was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two observations are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: "Classification change: Malicious" and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.
The exhibit also states that the file was "Detected as Unknown malware." This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification.
The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so "unknown malware" can still be classified malicious by FCS.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.
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NEW QUESTION # 38
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