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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Installation and Deployment | - Agent deployment and onboarding - Server and console installation requirements |
| Forensics and Investigation | - Event analysis and telemetry review - Endpoint investigation workflows |
| System Administration and Troubleshooting | - System monitoring and health checks - Troubleshooting common FortiEDR issues |
| Policy Configuration and Management | - Policy tuning and exclusions - Prevention and detection policies |
| Threat Detection and Response | - Incident detection and alert handling - Automated response actions and remediation |
| FortiEDR Architecture and Components | - System architecture and deployment models - FortiEDR components overview (agents, management console, collectors) |
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NEW QUESTION # 24
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two observations are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: "Classification change: Malicious" and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.
The exhibit also states that the file was "Detected as Unknown malware." This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification.
The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so "unknown malware" can still be classified malicious by FCS.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 26
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 27
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which statement about this threat hunting query is true? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A .
The exhibit shows a FortiEDR Threat Hunting saved query using RemotePort:3389, scoped to a specific device, with Scheduled Query enabled, classification set to Suspicious , and a repeat interval of 15 minutes .
TCP port 3389 is the standard RDP port, so the query is designed to detect RDP-related network activity for the selected endpoint.
The FortiEDR guide states that saving a Threat Hunting query can define it as a scheduled query to automate threat detection. It further states that when a scheduled query runs and detects matches, a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab , and notifications are sent according to the security event configuration.
Option B is too absolute and therefore wrong. The specific query shown uses a network field, but Threat Hunting itself can search activity events across files, registry, network, processes, and event logs. Option C is wrong because the Community Query checkbox is not selected, so it is not configured as a shared community
/global query. The guide states that Community Query must be selected to share the query with the FortiEDR community, including other organizations.
Option D is wrong because a scheduled Threat Hunting query generates an incident; it does not automatically block RDP unless additional playbook actions are configured. The guide says scheduled queries generate security events and may trigger configured playbook actions, but the query itself is not a blocking control.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which two statements correctly describe the IoT probing process on FortiEDR? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address .
This directly supports option B .
Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.
Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 29
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