P.S. VCESoft在Google Drive上分享了免費的2026 Medical Council of Canada MCCQE考試題庫：https://drive.google.com/open?id=1tZXy8uagGT95tWU7bOArRbYiC1SvZfoj
在這個資訊時代，IT行業被很多人關注，但是在如今人才濟濟的社會裏任然比較缺乏IT人。很多公司都招聘IT人才，他們一般考察IT人才的能力會參考他們擁有的IT相關認證證書，所以擁有一些IT相關的認證證書是受很多公司歡迎的。但是這些認證證書也不是很容易就能拿到的。Medical Council of Canada MCCQE 就是一個相當有難度的認證考試，雖然很多人報名參加Medical Council of Canada MCCQE考試，但是通過率並不是很高。
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Collaborator
|
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問題 #105
An 18-year-old man presents to your clinic with a history of intermittent, dull, achy pain on the left side of his scrotum, and he has now noted left scrotal enlargement. On examination, you note a swelling in the left scrotum when he is standing that disappears when he is supine. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
答案：B
解題說明：
A varicocele is a dilatation of the pampiniform plexus that presents with a "bag of worms" appearance, worsens with standing, and improves when lying down. It is most common on the left side due to anatomical drainage differences.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, Scrotal Disorders:
"Varicoceles often present with a dull, aching pain and scrotal swelling that worsens when upright and disappears when supine." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Urology:
"Candidates must recognize and diagnose varicocele by physical exam findings and typical symptom history." Cryptorchidism (A) refers to undescended testes. Torsion (B) presents acutely with severe pain. Hydrocele (C) transilluminates and is not posture-dependent. "Spermatocyte" (D) is not a clinical diagnosis.
問題 #106
A young man and woman who are in a relationship present to the office for prenatal counselling. During the visit, you observe that the man ' s lips appear as shown in the referenced photo.
[Image shows grouped vesicular lesions on erythematous base affecting the lips-classic for herpes labialis (HSV-1).] Which one of the following is the best advice?
答案：B
解題說明：
The patient shows signs of herpes labialis (HSV-1), which can transmit genital herpes via oral sex. This poses a risk to the fetus if maternal infection occurs during pregnancy, especially near delivery. Preventing new genital HSV infection during pregnancy is critical.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"HSV-1 can cause genital herpes via oral-genital transmission. Avoid oral sex during outbreaks in pregnancy to prevent primary maternal infection." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Infectious Disease in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must understand the importance of preventing new HSV infection during pregnancy and counsel appropriately." Culture (A) is not useful unless symptomatic. Serology (B) is not needed in this context. Cesarean (D) is not indicated unless active genital lesions at delivery. Acyclovir (C) is for infected mothers or near delivery.
問題 #107
A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0, presents to the office seeking guidance on the management of her baby once it is born. The patient is in renal failure and has been taking methadone for 3 years to manage her opioid use disorder. During her pregnancy, she has been taking a stable dose of 80 mg of methadone once daily. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
答案：E
解題說明：
Methadone maintenance therapy during pregnancy is the recommended treatment for opioid use disorder and should be continued at a stable dose. However, regardless of maternal dose stability, neonates are at significant risk of neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) due to in utero opioid exposure. MCCQE objectives emphasize anticipatory guidance and appropriate newborn monitoring in substance-exposed pregnancies.
Symptoms of NAS (irritability, tremors, poor feeding, vomiting, diarrhea, seizures) typically begin within 24-
72 hours after birth but may be delayed with long-acting opioids such as methadone. Therefore, routine observation in hospital for at least 72 hours is recommended to monitor for withdrawal and initiate supportive or pharmacologic treatment if needed.
Naloxone is contraindicated in opioid-dependent neonates except in life-threatening respiratory depression because it may precipitate severe withdrawal. Stable maternal dosing does not eliminate NAS risk, so early discharge is inappropriate. Breastfeeding is generally encouraged in stable methadone-maintained mothers, as methadone transfer in breast milk is minimal and may reduce withdrawal severity. Continuing methadone during pregnancy is safer than untreated opioid use.
問題 #108
A 59-year-old woman is referred to you because of a 2-month history of left nipple discharge. She is otherwise healthy and is not on any medication. There are no palpable lesions on breast examination. She is able to express a small amount of blood-tinged liquid from her breast. Which one of the following would be the best next step?
答案：E
解題說明：
Spontaneous, unilateral, blood-tinged nipple discharge in a postmenopausal woman is considered pathologic and warrants imaging to rule out intraductal pathology including malignancy. The best initial test is diagnostic mammography, often with ultrasound if indicated.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Breast Disorders:
"Unilateral, spontaneous, bloody nipple discharge should be evaluated with mammography and targeted ultrasound. Further tests such as MRI or duct excision are based on findings." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 81-1: Breast Conditions):
"Candidates must recognize red flags for breast malignancy and apply appropriate initial diagnostic imaging." Serum prolactin (C) is indicated in galactorrhea. Galactography (D) and MRI (E) are second-line. Biopsy (A) is premature without imaging.
問題 #109
A 62-year-old man (wealthy philanthropist) with emphysema from smoking and a 21-year-old woman (elementary teacher) with cystic fibrosis are both compatible matches for a lung transplant. Which criterion determines organ allocation?
答案：C
問題 #110
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MCCQE最新題庫資源: https://www.vcesoft.com/MCCQE-pdf.html
2026 VCESoft最新的MCCQE PDF版考試題庫和MCCQE考試問題和答案免費分享：https://drive.google.com/open?id=1tZXy8uagGT95tWU7bOArRbYiC1SvZfoj