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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: System Administration and Troubleshooting | - Troubleshooting common FortiEDR issues - System monitoring and health checks |
| Topic 2: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | - System architecture and deployment models - FortiEDR components overview (agents, management console, collectors) |
| Topic 3: Policy Configuration and Management | - Policy tuning and exclusions - Prevention and detection policies |
| Topic 4: Installation and Deployment | - Agent deployment and onboarding - Server and console installation requirements |
| Topic 5: Threat Detection and Response | - Incident detection and alert handling - Automated response actions and remediation |
| Topic 6: Forensics and Investigation | - Event analysis and telemetry review - Endpoint investigation workflows |
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NEW QUESTION # 32
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
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NEW QUESTION # 33
A collector triggers a suspicious security incident that is initially flagged as potentially malicious. The environment is connected to the FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) for classification. How does FCS process the event for accurate classification? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) enriches and enhances system security by performing deep, thorough analysis and investigation about the classification of a security event. It determines the exact classification of security events with a high degree of accuracy.
The guide further explains that the FCS classification process is performed through data enrichment and enhanced deep analysis and investigation enabled by automated and manual processes . These processes may include intelligence services, static and dynamic file analysis, sandboxing, flow analysis through machine learning, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and more.
Therefore, FCS does not rely only on FortiGate firewall policies, local signatures, or raw Collector log correlation. It performs enriched cloud-based automated and manual analysis to classify the incident accurately.
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NEW QUESTION # 34
Refer to the exhibit:
You configured an execution prevention exclusion with both File Name = app.exe and Path = C:\Tools. What will FortiEDR do? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Exclude only app.exe when it is running from C:\Tools.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that the Exclusion Manager is used to define which processes, files, or domains are excluded from Security Policies monitoring. For Process Exclusions, FortiEDR does not inspect actions performed by specific processes, and those processes are identified by the attributes defined by the administrator.
The guide further explains that process/source attributes can include File Name, Path, Hash, and Signer. It also states that when an exclusion contains multiple conditions, an AND relationship exists between the conditions. If an OR relationship is required, a separate exclusion must be created.
In this exhibit, both conditions are selected:
File Name = app.exe
Path = C:\Tools
Because FortiEDR applies an AND relationship between multiple exclusion conditions, the exclusion applies only when both conditions match. Therefore, FortiEDR excludes app.exe only when it is located/running from C:\Tools.
Option A is wrong because no Signer condition is selected. Option C is wrong because that would apply if only the file name were used broadly. Option D is wrong because FortiEDR is not excluding every file in C:
\Tools; it is excluding the process that matches both the file name and path conditions.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two observations are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: "Classification change: Malicious" and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.
The exhibit also states that the file was "Detected as Unknown malware." This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification.
The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so "unknown malware" can still be classified malicious by FCS.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.
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NEW QUESTION # 36
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization .
The key point is that Communication Control is not available in Hoster view . In a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment, Hoster view is the view used to display information for all organizations together. However, the guide clearly states under the Hoster view section: "Communication Control - The Communication Control window is not available in Hoster view." That means you cannot create one global Communication Control policy from Hoster view and assign it across all organizations. Options B , C , and D all assume cross-organization/global Communication Control policy assignment, but the guide does not support that capability. The practical recommendation is to configure Communication Control policies separately inside each organization.
The guide contrasts this with Security Policies, where in Hoster view the Security Policies page displays all policies from all organizations and supports cloning a security policy from one organization to another. That statement is for Security Policies , not Communication Control policies.
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NEW QUESTION # 37
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