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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Virtualization and Cloud Computing | 12% | - Virtualization fundamentals - Virtual machine concepts - Cloud connectivity and configuration - Cloud and virtualization troubleshooting - Cloud concepts and models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) |
| Topic 2: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting | 26% | - Common symptoms and root causes - Hardware troubleshooting - Network troubleshooting - Mobile device troubleshooting - Troubleshooting methodology - Printers and multifunction devices |
| Topic 3: Mobile Devices | 15% | - Mobile device configuration - Mobile device management (MDM) - Mobile device synchronization - Mobile device troubleshooting - Cellular connectivity and settings |
| Topic 4: Networking | 20% | - IP addressing and subnetting basics - Network protocols and services - Network connectivity - Network troubleshooting - Network configurations - Network hardware and devices |
| Topic 5: Hardware | 27% | - Power supplies and connectors - PC hardware and peripherals - Storage devices (HDD, SSD, NVMe) - BIOS/UEFI and firmware - Peripheral devices and connections - RAM types and installation - CPU and expansion cards |
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NEW QUESTION # 668
A customer reports that a workstation has no internet connectivity. A technician confirms the port is disabled.
Which of the following is most likely responsible for the issue?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A managed switch allows an administrator to enable or disable individual ports as part of network security and management. If a port on a managed switch has been disabled, the device connected to that port will lose connectivity, which matches the scenario described.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives - Domain 2.0 Networking - Objective 2.2:
Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices.
NEW QUESTION # 669
After a technician updated the wireless APs to 5GHz, users report they have degraded Wi-Fi performance. The technician tests for interference but finds none. Which of the following should the technician do next?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 5GHz band provides higher speeds but has a shorter range and weaker penetration through walls, so adding more access points improves coverage and signal strength, resolving performance degradation.
NEW QUESTION # 670
Which of the following connectors can be used to charge most modern mobile devices and may have the capacity to send data audio and video?
Answer: D
Explanation:
B:USB-C:
USB-C is a versatile connector that supports charging, high-speed data transfer, and the ability to send audio and video signals (e.g., DisplayPort over USB-C).
It is used by most modern mobile devices and laptops because of its fast transfer speeds and power delivery capabilities.
Incorrect Options:
A: Lightning: Lightning is proprietary to Apple devices and does not natively support video output.
C: MicroUSB: MicroUSB is outdated and does not support video output.
D: MiniUSB: MiniUSB is an older standard and does not support modern features like video output or fast charging.
Key Takeaway: USB-C is the most versatile connector for charging and transferring data, audio, and video.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 3.1 - Cable types and features.
NEW QUESTION # 671
Which of the following port numbers are associated with email traffic? (Select two).
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
To answer this question, we need to identify the port numbers associated with email protocols used in client- server communication.
Port 25 (SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):
This port is primarily used for sending emails between mail servers and from mail clients to mail servers (sending outbound mail).
SMTP is an essential protocol for email traffic.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 2.5 - Explain basic wired and wireless networking concepts, including ports and protocols.
Port 110 (POP3 - Post Office Protocol v3):
POP3 is used for retrieving emails from a mail server. It is commonly used for downloading email messages to a local client, after which the messages are deleted from the server.
While not as commonly used today (due to IMAP being preferred), POP3 is still a recognized email protocol, and its association with port 110 makes it a valid answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 2.5 - Explain basic wired and wireless networking concepts, including ports and protocols.
Incorrect Options:
A: Port 23: This is the Telnet protocol used for remote terminal access. It is not related to email traffic.
C: Port 67: This port is associated with the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server-to-client communications. It is unrelated to email.
E: Port 137: This port is part of NetBIOS, used for name resolution in legacy Windows environments. It is not relevant to email traffic.
F: Port 443: This port is used for HTTPS (secure web traffic) and is unrelated to email protocols.
Key Takeaway:The two correct port numbers associated with email traffic are B. 25 (SMTP) for sending emails and D. 110 (POP3) for retrieving emails.
NEW QUESTION # 672
Employees report that a shared laser printer has difficulty printing on thick paper. A technician verifies that the printer works as expected on standard paper, but output on thick paper is easily smudged when touched. Which of the following should the technician do first?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A laser printer fuses toner onto paper using heat and pressure. Thicker paper often requires a higher fuser temperature to properly adhere the toner.
If the output smudges on thick paper but prints fine on standard paper, adjusting the fuser temperature is the first step before performing more invasive maintenance or replacing parts.
NEW QUESTION # 673
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