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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| IT Risk Assessment | 22% | - Risk analysis and evaluation
|
| Technology and Security | 20% | - Information systems security
|
| Governance | 26% | - Organizational risk governance framework
|
| Risk Response and Reporting | 32% | - Risk response strategies
|
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NEW QUESTION # 208
Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the
environment?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Zero Trust Model:
Zero Trust security model assumes that threats can exist both inside and outside the network. Every access
request must be authenticated, authorized, and encrypted.
Preventing Control Gaps:
A robust technical architecture ensures comprehensive and consistent security controls across the entire
network.
It integrates various security measures, such as microsegmentation, strong authentication, continuous
monitoring, and least privilege access, to create a unified defense strategy.
Other Options:
Relying on Multiple Solutions:Can lead to fragmentation and inconsistencies in security controls.
Utilizing Rapid Development:May introduce vulnerabilities if security is not properly integrated.
Starting with a Large Initial Scope:Can be overwhelming and difficult to manage effectively, leading to
potential gaps.
References:
The CISSP Study Guide emphasizes the importance of a strong and cohesive technical architecture in
implementing Zero Trust effectively (Sybex CISSP Study Guide, Chapter 8: Principles of Security Models,
Design, and Capabilities) .
NEW QUESTION # 209
A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A risk practitioner should evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats to the organization's industry, as this is the best course of action to understand the current and future risk landscape, and to align the risk management strategy accordingly. By evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, the risk practitioner can determine the impact and likelihood of the threats affecting the organization's objectives, assets, and processes, and prioritize the most critical and urgent risks. The risk practitioner can also identify the gaps and weaknesses in the existing controls, and recommend appropriate risk response measures to mitigate the threats.
The other options are not as good as evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, because they do not address the root cause of the rising security incidents, but rather focus on the symptoms or consequences of the incidents. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page
85.
NEW QUESTION # 210
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have identified several risks. Which of the following responses to risk is considered the MOST appropriate?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The appropriate response to the risk is decided by the risk itself, the company's attitude and appetite of risk, and the threat and opportunity combination of the risk.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Depending upon the condition, that is, the risk itself, the company's attitude and appetite of risk, and the threat and opportunity combination of the risk, these response options can be chosen.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire
suppression system within a data center?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire suppression system within a
data center is the maintenance procedures, because they ensure that the fire suppression system is functioning
properly and reliably, and that it can prevent or minimize the damage caused by fire incidents. The
maintenance procedures should include regular testing, inspection, and servicing of the fire suppression
system components, such as sprinklers, detectors, alarms, and extinguishers. The other options are not as
important as the maintenance procedures, because:
Option A: Insurance coverage is a financial measure that can compensate for the loss or damage caused by
fire incidents, but it does not prevent or reduce the likelihood or impact of the fire incidents. Insurance
coverage is also dependent on the terms and conditions of the insurance policy, which may not cover all the
scenarios or costs of the fire incidents.
Option B: Onsite replacement availability is a contingency measure that can facilitate the recovery or
restoration of the fire suppression system after a fire incident, but it does not prevent or reduce the likelihood
or impact of the fire incidents. Onsite replacement availability is alsodependent on the availability and
compatibility of the replacement parts, which may not match the original fire suppression system
specifications or requirements.
Option D: Installation manuals are a reference source that can provide guidance on how to install or configure
the fire suppression system, but they do not ensure that the fire suppression system is functioning properly and
reliably. Installation manuals are also static documents that may not reflect the current or updated fire
suppression system standards or practices. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study
Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 211.
NEW QUESTION # 212
An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated
cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of
action?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 213
......
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2026 Latest TestInsides CRISC PDF Dumps and CRISC Exam Engine Free Share: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1_FRQ5Cui-GEtGvcESirUqCoLzAPCYU_z