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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dimensions of Care | - Chronic Care
|
| Topic 2: Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
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NEW QUESTION # 50
A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic with double vision and a gritty sensation in her eyes for the past several weeks. On examination, you notice her eyes are bulging. There is inflammation of her conjunctivae and swelling around her eyes. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The findings of exophthalmos (bulging eyes), conjunctival inflammation, and periorbital swelling are hallmark features of Graves ophthalmopathy, a manifestation of autoimmune hyperthyroidism.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Thyroid Disorders":
"Graves ophthalmopathy: proptosis, periorbital edema, conjunctivitis, and diplopia due to extraocular muscle involvement. Often independent of thyroid levels." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 36-1: Thyroid Disease):
"Candidates must recognize and manage Graves disease and its ocular manifestations." Myasthenia gravis may cause diplopia but not proptosis or swelling. Pseudotumor and cellulitis are painful and acute. Allergic conjunctivitis is itchy but lacks proptosis.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A 28-year-old nulligravid woman presents to your clinic with grey-green vaginal discharge that has a "fishy- type odour." Microscopy reveals superficial squamous cells with blurred borders caused by adherent bacteria.
The patient's symptoms abate after therapy with vaginal metronidazole. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this clinical presentation?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This presentation is classic for bacterial vaginosis (BV) . MCCQE objectives emphasize recognition of BV by its typical features: thin grey/grey-green discharge , fishy (amine) odour , and microscopy showing clue cells
-vaginal epithelial (superficial squamous) cells with blurred borders from adherent bacteria. BV results from a shift in vaginal flora away from lactobacilli toward anaerobes, with Gardnerella vaginalis commonly implicated and often present in polymicrobial overgrowth. Improvement with metronidazole further supports BV, as it is first-line therapy.
Other options do not match: HPV causes genital warts/cervical dysplasia, not malodorous discharge with clue cells. Trichomonas typically causes frothy yellow-green discharge, "strawberry cervix," and motile trichomonads on wet mount (not clue cells). Chlamydia and gonorrhea cause cervicitis/PID with mucopurulent discharge and pelvic symptoms rather than fishy odour and clue cells. Therefore, Gardnerella vaginalis is the most likely cause.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 1, and her partner present to the office for follow-up regarding a spontaneous abortion that occurred 6 weeks ago. On history, the patient smokes tobacco cigarettes occasionally. On examination, she is healthy and has a BMI of 25. Ultrasonography findings reveal an empty uterus with a 2-cm subserosal fibroid. The couple is planning another pregnancy and would like information on how to increase her chances of carrying a pregnancy to full term. Which one of the following is the best advice?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient had a single spontaneous abortion and is planning another pregnancy. MCCQE objectives emphasize modifiable risk factor reduction and evidence-based preconception counseling. Smoking is a well- established risk factor for miscarriage, placental complications, fetal growth restriction, and preterm birth.
Therefore, smoking cessation is the most effective intervention among the options listed to improve the likelihood of a healthy term pregnancy.
A 2-cm subserosal fibroid does not distort the uterine cavity and is unlikely to contribute to miscarriage; surgical removal is not indicated. There is no evidence that abstaining from intercourse in the first trimester prevents miscarriage. After a single early pregnancy loss, there is no need to delay conception for 6 months; couples may attempt pregnancy once emotionally and physically ready.
While folic acid supplementation is recommended preconceptionally, the standard dose for low-risk women is
0.4-1 mg daily, not 5 mg (which is reserved for high-risk patients). Thus, smoking cessation is the most important advice.
NEW QUESTION # 53
You performed a surgical procedure on a 32-year-old woman for a herniated disk that was causing neurologic impairment. At the 8-month follow-up visit, she has healed well; however, she requests a prescription renewal of her narcotic analgesics (hydromorphone). Her pharmacy confirms that the patient adheres to the dosage you prescribed, that she has not consulted other physicians, and that her behavior has always been respectful.
You think that she no longer requires narcotic analgesics. Which one of the following approaches is most helpful to the patient?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient's pain is no longer medically justified for opioids, but there is no evidence of misuse. The most appropriate and supportive action is to explain concerns, provide education about opioid tapering or dependency, and transition care to her family physician for ongoing management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Safe Prescribing and Opioid Stewardship" Section:
"When opioids are no longer indicated, engage the patient in a conversation about tapering and arrange appropriate follow-up. Coordinate care with primary providers when long-term management is needed." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Substance Use):
"Candidates must address the risk of dependency, counsel the patient, and ensure a safe transition to appropriate care without abrupt termination." Methadone (E) and fentanyl (A) are for opioid use disorder or chronic pain, not for tapering in low-risk patients. Discharging the patient (B) or reporting (C) is punitive and unnecessary.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A 37-year-old woman diagnosed with schizophrenia comes to her family physician because she has been choking on her food lately. She has a history of mild spasmodic dysphonia. She was recently started on haloperidol for auditory hallucinations. Which one of the following is the best short-term management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient is likely experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms (dysphagia/dystonia) due to haloperidol.
Switching to an atypical antipsychotic (like quetiapine), which has a lower risk of EPS, is appropriate.
Dysphagia in the context of antipsychotic use requires prompt medication review.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Antipsychotics and Extrapyramidal Effects":
"Dysphagia can be a sign of extrapyramidal side effects. Consider switching to an atypical antipsychotic with lower EPS risk." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Antipsychotic Adverse Effects):
"Candidates must recognize and manage EPS, including drug-induced dysphagia." Dantrolene (C) is for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not isolated dysphagia. Laryngoscopy (B) may be useful later but not first-line. Reassurance (D) is unsafe. Lorazepam (E) may help in dystonia but doesn't address the root cause.
NEW QUESTION # 55
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