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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Investigation
|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Threat Intelligence and Hunting
|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Reporting
|
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NEW QUESTION # 87
A security operations (SOC) manager develops response mechanisms as part of playbook development efforts. The SOC manager needs to accomplish the following:
- Document adversarial activities.
- Map adversarial activities to a linear progression of sequential phases.
- Provide broad coverage of threat actions without addressing specific
tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs).
Which of the following is the most reliable source for this information?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cyber Kill Chain documents adversarial activities as a linear sequence of phases, providing a high-level view of threat progression without focusing on detailed tactics, techniques, or procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 88
An analyst receives the following output:
Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?
Answer: A
Explanation:
TCP port 80 carries unencrypted HTTP traffic and is open on 10.203.20.15 and 10.203.20.10.
SSH on port 22 and HTTPS on port 443 are encrypted.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Hotspot Question
A systems administrator is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the information in each tab.
Based on the organization's environment architecture and remediation standards, select the server to be patched within 14 days and select the appropriate technique and mitigation.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.



Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
192.168.60.90 is an operations server with a CVSS score of 8.1, requiring remediation within 14 calendar days. Restricting the server to modern cipher suites directly mitigates the identified TLS downgrade vulnerability.
NEW QUESTION # 90
A security operations center (SOC) manager makes significant updates to the incident response plan and wants to test these updates with all stakeholders collaboratively.
Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this task?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is the most appropriate method because the objective is to collaboratively validate an updated incident-response plan with relevant stakeholders. Tabletop exercises are discussion-driven simulations in which participants work through a realistic incident scenario, explain their expected actions, identify dependencies, evaluate communication paths, and expose procedural or organizational gaps without performing disruptive live attacks.
CISA states that tabletop exercises are used to validate or improve understanding of plans and procedures, rehearse concepts, assess incident-response and recovery requirements, and identify areas requiring improvement. CISA also provides Tabletop Exercise Packages specifically to help stakeholders conduct collaborative exercises and organizational discussions.
A red-team event involves active adversary simulation and focuses primarily on testing defensive capabilities against realistic attacker behavior. A penetration test evaluates exploitable technical weaknesses. Security awareness training teaches users security knowledge but does not collaboratively validate incident-response roles, escalation paths, communications, and decision-making.
Because the manager recently made significant plan updates , a tabletop exercise provides a controlled mechanism for all stakeholders to determine whether those procedures actually function as intended before a real incident occurs.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Preparation # Incident Response Plan # Tabletop Exercises # Stakeholder Coordination # Testing Plans and Procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 91
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is notified of an ongoing incident.
Which of the following explains why the CISO instructs the Chief Executive Officer not to discuss the incident over email?
Answer: C
Explanation:
During an active cybersecurity incident, responders must assume that systems associated with the compromise may no longer provide trustworthy confidentiality or integrity until their status has been established. If the incident could involve the organization's email infrastructure, discussing response strategy, investigative findings, affected assets, or containment actions through corporate email could unintentionally provide the attacker with intelligence about the organization's response.
Therefore, the email system may be compromised is the strongest explanation. Incident-response communication plans should define approved communication methods, relevant stakeholders, escalation paths, and alternative communication channels so responders can continue coordinating when ordinary enterprise systems are unavailable or untrusted. NIST's current incident-response guidance emphasizes integrating communication and stakeholder coordination throughout response activities.
Option C is too broad. Modern email commonly uses transport encryption, although encryption alone would not make a compromised mailbox or server trustworthy. Option D concerns public-relations coordination but does not explain why email itself should be avoided. Option A describes a specific gateway vulnerability that the scenario does not establish.
The core principle is out-of-band communication : when normal communication infrastructure may be under attacker control, responders should use a previously approved independent channel.
Study Guide Reference: Reporting and Communication # Incident Communications # Communication Plan
# Out-of-Band Communications # Stakeholder Coordination # Compromised Communication Channels.
NEW QUESTION # 92
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