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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Handling and Investigation
- 1. Evidence Collection and Forensic Fundamentals
- 2. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
- 3. Post-Incident Activities and Lessons Learned
- 4. Incident Response Lifecycle and Frameworks
|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Security Monitoring and Analysis
- 1. Threat Detection and Threat Hunting
- 2. System and Network Architecture Security
- 3. SOAR, EDR, and XDR Concepts
- 4. Endpoint, Network, and Cloud Monitoring
- 5. SIEM Implementation and Analysis
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
- 1. Risk Communication to Technical and Business Audiences
- 2. Incident Reporting Requirements and Compliance
- 3. Security Reporting and Documentation
|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
- 1. Vulnerability Scanning and Assessment
- 2. Remediation Verification and Tracking
- 3. Cloud and Container Security Vulnerabilities
- 4. Vulnerability Prioritization and Risk Assessment
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q166-Q171):
NEW QUESTION # 166
Which of the following explains how MTTD can affect IR reporting and communication?
- A. The MTTD defines the maximum time allowed between detection and response
- B. Having a shorter MTTD reduces the potential impact of an incident.
- C. MTTD is part of regulatory compliance and outlines an approved process for reporting.
- D. Improved MTTD ensures the leadership team is made aware of threats before exploitation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) measures how quickly an organization identifies security incidents.
A shorter MTTD means threats are discovered sooner, allowing responders to contain and remediate them before they cause greater damage. This directly reduces the potential impact of an incident and is an important metric in incident response reporting.
NEW QUESTION # 167
A security architect works with a client on security operations center (SOC) capabilities. The security architect wants to ensure the log correlation and investigation activities are accurate across the infrastructure. Which of the following is the best for the client to implement?
- A. Account federation
- B. Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA)
- C. Network Time Protocol (NTP)
- D. Application programming interfaces (APIs)
- E. Secure access service edge (SASE)
Answer: C
Explanation:
NTP synchronizes system clocks across the infrastructure, ensuring log timestamps align for accurate event correlation and incident timeline analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Current playbooks for incident response mention resources that have been decommissioned.
Which of the following actions should an analyst take?
- A. Begin an asset inventory review with the appropriate team.
- B. Create an automation script to archive unused playbooks.
- C. Schedule a meeting with the responsible team for a policy review
- D. Rewrite all threat response playbooks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Playbooks are part of formal incident response procedures and must remain aligned with current policies, infrastructure, and available resources. When they reference decommissioned resources, the appropriate action is to coordinate with the responsible stakeholders to review and update the policy and procedures so the playbooks accurately reflect the current environment.
NEW QUESTION # 169
While reviewing logs, a SOC analyst notices traffic that is attempting connections to all hosts on ports 1-65535. Which of the following steps of the Cyber Kill Chain is most likely occurring?
- A. Installation
- B. Reconnaissance
- C. Weaponization
- D. Delivery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Attempting connections to all hosts across ports 1-65535 is characteristic of network scanning activity used to identify active systems, open ports, and available services. In the Cyber Kill Chain, this activity falls under the reconnaissance phase, where attackers gather information about potential targets before launching an attack.
NEW QUESTION # 170
An analyst reviews a summarized vulnerability report through a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) reporting tool.
The following report correlates asset information from the configuration management database (CMDB) against detected vulnerabilities:

Which of the following servers should the analyst prioritize based on the target value, the risk, and the likelihood of exploitation?
- A. DEVWIN11-01
- B. PRODWEB-02
- C. PRODWEB-01
- D. MPC-Control
Answer: C
Explanation:
PRODWEB-01 represents the highest remediation priority because vulnerability prioritization should combine asset value, vulnerability risk, and exploitation likelihood , rather than relying on severity alone.
A production web server is typically more exposed and operationally significant than a development endpoint, and the correlated CMDB information provides the business context required to determine whether exploitation would materially affect organizational operations.
A mature vulnerability-management process evaluates technical severity together with internet exposure, business criticality, existing controls, active exploitation, threat intelligence, and the availability of remediation. CISA specifically recommends using known exploitation evidence as an input into vulnerability prioritization and provides risk-based methodologies such as SSVC for determining appropriate response actions.
This explains why simply choosing the system with the numerically highest isolated vulnerability score would be inadequate. DEVWIN11-01, for example, may contain significant findings but carries lower production value. A control-system asset may have high business importance but can present different exposure and exploitability conditions. The correlated attributes associated with PRODWEB-01 establish the strongest combined risk.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Vulnerability Prioritization # Asset Criticality # Exploitability # Threat Intelligence # CMDB Context # Risk-Based Remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 171
......
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