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CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Security Operations33%- Threat intelligence
  • 1. Sources and types of threat intelligence
  • 2. Indicators of compromise (IOCs) and indicators of attack (IOAs)
  • 3. Intelligence cycle and analysis
- Security monitoring concepts and tools
  • 1. Network traffic analysis
  • 2. SIEM deployment, configuration, and use
  • 3. Log management and analysis
  • 4. Endpoint security monitoring
- Automation and orchestration
  • 1. SOAR platforms and workflows
  • 2. Scripting and automation tools
Topic 2: Reporting and Communication17%- Data visualization and presentation
  • 1. Creating effective security reports
  • 2. Communicating risks and recommendations
- Security awareness and training
  • 1. Delivering training and awareness programs
  • 2. Developing security content
- Reporting requirements and standards
  • 1. Technical vs. executive reporting
  • 2. Compliance and regulatory reporting
Topic 3: Vulnerability Management30%- Risk assessment and mitigation
  • 1. Remediation strategies and controls
  • 2. Risk frameworks and analysis
  • 3. Patch management and system hardening
- Vulnerability assessment processes
  • 1. Configuration and compliance scanning
  • 2. Scanning tools and methodologies
  • 3. Vulnerability validation and prioritization
- Cloud and virtual environment vulnerabilities
  • 1. Cloud security posture management
  • 2. Container and virtualization security
Topic 4: Incident Response Management20%- Incident response lifecycle
  • 1. Detection and analysis
  • 2. Post-incident activities
  • 3. Preparation and planning
  • 4. Containment, eradication, and recovery
- Coordination and communication
  • 1. Internal and external stakeholder coordination
  • 2. Legal and regulatory considerations
- Digital forensics basics
  • 1. Evidence collection and preservation
  • 2. Forensic analysis techniques

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam CS0-003 Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q366-Q371):

366. Frage
An analyst is reviewing a dashboard from the company's SIEM and finds that an IP address known to be malicious can be tracked to numerous high-priority events in the last two hours. The dashboard indicates that these events relate to TTPs. Which of the following is the analyst most likely using?

Antwort: C

Begründung:
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is widely used for tracking and categorizing Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) of adversaries. TTPs help analysts understand the behaviors and methods attackers employ during incidents, making this framework particularly useful in SIEM dashboards for correlating and identifying threats. While the other options (OSSTMM, Diamond Model, OWASP) offer various security methodologies, MITRE ATT&CK is specifically focused on documenting adversary behaviors, making it the best fit here.


367. Frage
An analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network that is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. Which of the following steps of an attack framework is the analyst witnessing?

Antwort: A

Begründung:
Explanation
Reconnaissance is the first stage in the Cyber Kill Chain and involves researching potential targets before carrying out any penetration testing. The reconnaissance stage may include identifying potential targets, finding their vulnerabilities, discovering which third parties are connected to them (and what data they can access), and exploring existing entry points as well as finding new ones. Reconnaissance can take place both online and offline. In this case, an analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing reconnaissance activity by an attacker. Official References:
https://www.lockheedmartin.com/en-us/capabilities/cyber/cyber-kill-chain.html


368. Frage
Which of the following describes the difference between intentional and unintentional insider threats'?

Antwort: A

Begründung:
The difference between intentional and unintentional insider threats is their behavior. Intentional insider threats are malicious actors who deliberately misuse their access to harm the organization or its assets. Unintentional insider threats are careless or negligent users who accidentally compromise the security of the organization or its assets. Their access levels, risk factors, and rates of occurrence may vary depending on various factors, but their behavior is the main distinction. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 12; https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Insider_Threat_Mitigation_Guide_508.pdf


369. Frage
During an incident, analysts need to rapidly investigate by the investigation and leadership teams. Which of the following best describes how PII should be safeguarded during an incident?

Antwort: D

Begründung:
The best option to safeguard PII during an incident is to ensure permissions are limited in the investigation team and encrypt the data. This is because limiting permissions reduces the risk of unauthorized access or leakage of sensitive data, and encryption protects the data from being read or modified by anyone who does not have the decryption key. Option A is not correct because closing the data may hinder the investigation process and prevent collaboration with other parties who may need access to the data. Option C is not correct because deleting data that is no longer needed may violate legal or regulatory requirements for data retention, and may also destroy potential evidence for the incident. Option D is not correct because opening permissions to the company may expose the data to more people than necessary, increasing the risk of compromise or misuse.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf)


370. Frage
An incident response team found indicators of compromise on a critical server. The team needs to isolate the server and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server?

Antwort: D

Begründung:
The correct answer is D. Routing table . The routing table is volatile technical evidence because it is stored in memory and can change or be lost when the system is isolated, powered down, rebooted, or otherwise modified. In incident response and forensics, volatile evidence must be collected before less volatile evidence.
Exact supporting extract: the Sybex CySA+ Practice Tests explanation states that routing tables are typically stored in RAM, making them highly volatile. It also explains the order of volatility from least to most volatile as backups/printouts, disk drives, virtual memory, and finally CPU cache, registers, and RAM.
The Sybex CySA+ Study Guide states that forensic acquisition must account for the order of volatility , meaning how easily data can be lost. It explains that memory and cache data are highly volatile and may be lost if the system is powered off, while disk data is much less volatile.
The Secbay CySA+ guide also states that the order of volatility must be followed because failing to do so will likely result in evidence being lost. It specifically notes that volatile data is kept in areas such as CPU cache and memory, while archived media persists for much longer.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Hard disk is persistent storage and can be imaged later using forensic procedures.
B). Primary boot partition is also persistent disk evidence.
C). Malicious files are important, but files on disk are less volatile than memory-resident network state.
E). Static IP address is configuration information and is not as volatile as the active routing table.
D is correct because the routing table should be captured before isolation changes the server's active network state.


371. Frage
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