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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) exam is a certification that is recognized globally in the field of Information Technology (IT). Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is designed to help professionals who have a background in IT risk management and control to develop the skills and knowledge necessary to effectively manage and mitigate IT risks within their organizations. CRISC exam is a comprehensive assessment of the candidate's knowledge of IT risk management, control, and governance.
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ISACA CRISC certification is an essential credential for IT risk management professionals. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification demonstrates an individual's ability to design, implement, monitor and maintain effective risk management programs. The CRISC Certification Exam is a comprehensive exam that covers four domains and requires a passing score of 450 out of 800 points.
NEW QUESTION # 1321
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk tolerance and appetite are the expressions of the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that the organization is willing to allow for the outcome of its risk decisions. Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in its activities. The primary objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite is to assist management in decision making, as they provide guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. By establishing the risk tolerance and appetite, the organization can align its risk exposure with its strategic goals, optimize its risk-return trade-off, and enhance its risk culture and performance. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 61.
NEW QUESTION # 1322
Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 1323
Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 1324
During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of
alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:
Answer: D
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a network security tool that monitors network traffic and devices for
known malicious activity, suspicious activity or security policy violations1. An IDS can generate alerts when
it detects any potential threats, but not all alerts are accurate or relevant. There are two types of errors that can
affect the performance and reliability of an IDS: false positives and false negatives2.
A false positive is when an IDS incorrectly flags a benign or normal activity as malicious or suspicious. For
example, an IDS may alert on a legitimate network scan or a harmless software update. False positives can
reduce the credibility and efficiency of an IDS, as they can overwhelm the security team with unnecessary
alerts, distract them from the real threats, and cause them to ignore or disable the IDS3.
A false negative is when an IDS fails to flag a malicious or suspicious activity as such. For example, an IDS
may miss a stealthy or novel attack that does not match any known signatures or patterns. False negatives can
compromise the security and integrity of the network, as they can allow attackers to bypass the IDS and cause
damage or steal data without being detected4.
The risk practitioner should recommend to analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives, because this is
the best way to improve the accuracy and usefulness of the IDS. By analyzing the alerts, the risk practitioner
can:
Identify the sources and causes of the false positives, such as misconfigured or outdated IDS rules, network
anomalies, or legitimate traffic that resembles malicious traffic5.
Adjust or fine-tune the IDS settings, such as the alert threshold, the sensitivity level, the detection method, or
the rule base, to reduce the number of false positives without increasing the risk of false negatives.
Validate or verify the alerts with other sources of information, such as logs, network traffic analysis, or threat
intelligence, to confirm or dismiss the alerts as true or false positives.
Prioritize or classify the alerts based on their severity, impact, or likelihood, to focus on the most critical or
relevant alerts and avoid alert fatigue.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Resetting the alert threshold based on peak traffic is not a reliable or effective way to minimize the false
positives, as it may also increase the risk of false negatives. The alert threshold is the level of activity or
deviation that triggers an alert from the IDS. If the threshold is set too high, the IDS may miss some malicious
or suspicious activity that occurs below the threshold. If the threshold is set too low, the IDS may generate too
many alerts for normal or benign activity that exceeds the threshold. The optimal threshold depends on
various factors, such as the network size, topology, traffic volume, and baseline. Peak traffic is not a good
indicator of the optimal threshold, as it may vary depending on the time, day, or season, and it may not reflect
the normal or expected network behavior.
Analyzing the traffic to minimize the false negatives is not the main issue or goal in this scenario, as the
problem is the high number of alerts, not the low number of alerts. Analyzing thetraffic can help to identify
the malicious or suspicious activity that the IDS may have missed, but it does not address the root cause of the
false positives or improve the IDS performance. Moreover, analyzing the traffic can be time-consuming and
resource-intensive, especially for large or complex networks, and it may require specialized tools or skills that
the risk practitioner may not have.
Sniffing the traffic using a network analyzer is not a suitable or feasible option in this scenario, as it may
violate the privacy or security policies of the network or the organization. Sniffing the traffic means capturing
and inspecting the network packets that are transmitted or received by the devices on the network. A network
analyzer is a tool that can perform this function and display the packet data in a readable format. However,
sniffing the traffic can also expose sensitive or confidential information, such as passwords, usernames, or
credit card numbers, that may be contained in the packets. Therefore, sniffing the traffic may require
authorization or consent from the network owners or users, and it may be restricted or prohibited by law or
regulation.
References =
What is an intrusion detection system (IDS)? - IBM
Intrusion detection system - Wikipedia
What Are Intrusion Detection Systems? - MUO
12 Best Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Software 2024 - Comparitech
What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? - Fortinet
[False Positive and False Negative in Intrusion Detection System]
[False Positives and False Negatives in Intrusion Detection Systems]
[How to Reduce False Positives for Your IDS/IPS]
[How to Set the Right Alert Thresholds for Your IDS/IPS]
[Network Traffic Analysis: What It Is and How It Works]
[What is a Network Analyzer? - Definition from Techopedia]
NEW QUESTION # 1325
Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The control environment is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization's governance, risk management, and control functions. It includes the organization's culture, values, ethics, structure, roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, etc.
Uncontrolled changes are changes or modifications to the control environment that are not planned, authorized, documented, or monitored, and that may have unintended or adverse consequences for the organization. Uncontrolled changes may be caused by various drivers or events, such as technological innovations, market trends, regulatory changes, customer preferences, competitor actions, environmental issues, etc.
The greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment is an increase in the level of residual risk, which is the amount and type of risk that remains after the implementation and execution of the risk responses or controls. An increase in the level of residual risk means that the risk responses or controls are not effective or sufficient to mitigate or prevent the risks, and that the organization may face unacceptable or intolerable consequences if the risks materialize.
An increase in the level of residual risk is the greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because it indicates that the organization's risk profile and performance have deteriorated, and that the organization may not be able to achieve its objectives or protect its value. It also indicates that the organization's risk appetite and tolerance have been violated, and that the organization may need to take corrective or compensating actions to restore the balance between risk and return.
The other options are not the greatest concerns when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because they do not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
A decrease in control layering effectiveness means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the organization uses multiple or overlapping controls to address the same or related risks, and to provide redundancy or backup in case of failure or compromise of one or more controls. A decrease in control layering effectiveness may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization's control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control layering is required or recommended by the organization's policies or standards.
An increase in inherent risk means an increase in the amount and type of risk that exists in the absence of any risk responses or controls, and that is inherent to the nature or characteristics of the risk source, event, cause, or impact. An increase in inherent risk may indicate a change or variation in the organization's risk exposure or level, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the inherent risk exceeds the organization's risk appetite or tolerance.
An increase in control vulnerabilities means an increase in the number or severity of the weaknesses or flaws in the organization's risk responses or controls that can be exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization's objectives or operations. An increase in control vulnerabilities may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization's control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control vulnerabilities are exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm. References = ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-
59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 174 CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
NEW QUESTION # 1326
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P.S. Free 2026 ISACA CRISC dumps are available on Google Drive shared by DumpTorrent: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1lqbbGjND2PHFGsunYor8vkJYiZVtFrJ5