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NCLEX NCLEX-RN practice test has real National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) (NCLEX-RN) exam questions. You can change the difficulty of these questions, which will help you determine what areas appertain to more study before taking your National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) (NCLEX-RN) exam dumps. Here we listed some of the most important benefits you can get from using our NCLEX NCLEX-RN practice questions.
| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Psychosocial Integrity | 6–12% | - Coping Mechanisms - Grief and Loss - End-of-Life Support - Mental Health Concepts - Therapeutic Communication - Behavioral Interventions - Family Dynamics - Chemical Dependency and Substance Use Disorders |
| Topic 2: Physiological Integrity | 43–67% | - Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
|
| Topic 3: Health Promotion and Maintenance | 6–12% | - Self-Care - Health Promotion Programs - Antepartum, Intrapartum, Postpartum and Newborn Care - Disease Prevention and Health Screening - Aging Process - Developmental Stages and Transitions - Physical Assessment Techniques |
| Topic 4: Safe and Effective Care Environment | 26–38% | - Safety and Infection Control
|
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NEW QUESTION # 251
A laboring client presents with a prolapsed cord. The nurse should immediately place the client in what position?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Reverse Trendelenburg position increases pressure on the perineum. This position will not relieve cord pressure. (B) Fowler's position increases perineal pressure. Cord pressure would not be relieved. (C) Trendelenburg position will decrease perineal pressure. Cord compression will be decreased and increase in fetal blood flow occurs. (D) Sims' position does not relieve pressure on cord or perineum.
NEW QUESTION # 252
The primary reason that an increase in heart rate (100 bpm) detrimental to the client with a myocardial infarction (MI) is that:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Decreased stroke volume and blood pressure will occur secondary to decreased diastolic filling. (B) Tachycardia primarily decreases diastole; systolic time changes very little. (C) Contractility decreases owing to the decreased filling time and decreased time for fiber lengthening. (D) Decreased O2 supply due to decreased time for filling of the coronary arteriesincreases ischemia and infarct size. Tachycardia primarily robs the heart of diastolic time, which is the primary time for coronary artery filling.
NEW QUESTION # 253
A 52-year-old client who underwent an exploratory laparotomy for a bowel obstruction begins to complain of hunger on the third postoperative day. His nasogastric (NG) tube was removed this morning, and he has an IV of D5W with 0.45% normal saline running at 125 mL/hr. He asks when he can get rid of his IV and start eating.
The nurse recognizes that he will be able to begin taking oral fluids and nourishment when:
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) The absence of wound infection is related to his surgical wound and not to postoperative GI functioning and return of peristalsis. (B) Routine postoperative protocol involves detection of bowel sounds and return of peristalsis before introduction of clear liquids, followed by progression of full liquids and a regular diet versus a full regular meal first. (C) Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction is to assess for the return of bowel sounds within 72 hours after major surgery, because that is when bowel sounds normally return. If unable to detect bowel sounds, the surgeon should be notified immediately and have the client remain NPO.
(D) Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction and other major surgeries involves frequent monitoring of vital signs in the immediate postoperative period (in recovery room) and then every 4 hours, or more frequently if the client is unstable, on the nursing unit. This includes assessing for signs of hypovolemic shock. Vital signs usually stabilize within the first 24 hours postoperatively.
NEW QUESTION # 254
A 16-year-old client with a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder is threatening violence toward another child. In managing a potentially violent client, the nurse:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This answer is correct. Least restrictive measures should always be attempted before a client is placed in seclusion or restraints. The nurse should first try a calm verbal approach, suggest a quiet room, or request that the client take "time-out" before placing the client in seclusion, givingmedication as necessary, or restraining.
(B) This answer is incorrect. A calm verbal approach or requesting that a client go to his room should be attempted before restraining. (C) This answer is incorrect. Restraints should be applied only after all other measures fail to control the behavior. (D) This answer is incorrect. Other clients should be removed from the area. It is often very anxiety producing for other clients to see a peer out of control. It could also lead to mass acting- out behaviors.
NEW QUESTION # 255
Azulfidine (Sulfasalazine) may be ordered for a client who has ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is a nursing implication for this drug?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Fluids up to 2500-3000 mL/day are needed to prevent kidney stones. (B) The client should be instructed to take oral preparations with meals or snacks to lessen gastric irritation. (C) Sulfasalazine causes skin rash and diarrhea. (D) Blood pressure and pulse are not altered by sulfasalazine.
NEW QUESTION # 256
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