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| Certification Vendor: | FINRA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam |
| Exam Number: | SIE |
| Passing Score: | 70% |
| Exam Duration: | 105 minutes |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 4 years |
| Real Exam Qty: | 75 scored multiple-choice questions |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Exam Price: | $80 USD |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Computer-based exam |
| Related Certifications: | FINRA Series 7 FINRA Series 79 FINRA Series 6 |
| Recommended Training: | FINRA SIE Exam Content Outline FINRA Securities Industry Essentials Exam Overview |
| Exam Registration: | FINRA Exam Registration Overview FINRA SIE Exam Official Page |
| Sample Questions: | FINRA SIE Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Computer-based exam delivered at authorized testing centers (Prometric). |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites required. Recommended for individuals entering the U.S. securities industry. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.finra.org/registration-exams-ce/qualification-exams/securities-industry-essentials-exam |
Our experts are responsible to make in-depth research on the SIE exam who contribute to growth of our SIE preparation materials even the practice materials in the market as role models. Both normal and essential exam knowledge is written by them with digestible ways to understand. Their highly accurate exam point can help you detect flaws on the review process and trigger your enthusiasm about the exam. SIE Exam Questions can fuel your speed and help you achieve your dream.
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NEW QUESTION # 15
An investor writes a call option with a strike price of $35.00 on underlying XYZ stock with an expiration date of March 15. On March 15, XYZ is priced at $36.50. The call option:
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, is in the money by $1.50. A call option is in the money (ITM) when the market price of the underlying stock is above the strike price.
Step-by-step, the intrinsic value of a call option is calculated as:
Market Price # Strike Price
In this case:
$36.50 # $35.00 = $1.50
This means the call option has $1.50 of intrinsic value at expiration. Since the option is in the money, it will not expire worthless-instead, it will be exercised (or automatically exercised), allowing the holder to buy the stock at $35 and potentially sell it at the market price of $36.50.
Choice A is incorrect because "at the money" would mean the stock price equals the strike price. Choice B is incorrect because only out-of-the-money options expire worthless. Choice D is incorrect because the option is not out of the money-it is above the strike price.
It is also important to note that the investor wrote (sold) the call, meaning they face an obligation to deliver the stock at $35 if exercised, resulting in potential loss.
Thus, the call option is in the money by $1.50, making Answer C correct.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following statements is true of the comparison between penny stocks and blue-chip stocks?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Penny Stocks: These are low-priced, highly speculative stocks often issued by small or distressed companies. They generally have low liquidity, meaning they can be difficult to buy or sell without significantly impacting the price.
* Incorrect Options:
* Dividends: Penny stocks rarely pay dividends, unlike blue-chip stocks.
* Price Stability: Penny stocks are highly volatile compared to blue-chip stocks.
* Capitalization: Blue-chip companies are far better capitalized.
SEC Bulletin on Penny Stocks: SEC Penny Stocks.
NEW QUESTION # 17
When is a newly registered person subject to the Continuing Education Regulatory Element requirement?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Regulatory Element Requirement: Newly registered persons must complete the Continuing Education (CE) Regulatory Element on the second anniversary of their initial registration and every three years thereafter.
* Incorrect Options:
* A: The requirement begins on the second anniversary, not the following calendar year.
* D: The cycle is every three years, not five.
References:
* FINRA Rule 1240 (Continuing Education): FINRA Rule 1240.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the following statements is true regarding Treasury securities?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Treasury securities (Treasury bills, notes, and bonds) are obligations of the U.S. government. A key testable feature is their tax treatment: interest earned on Treasuries is subject to federal income tax (though it is generally exempt from state and local income taxes). That makes choice B correct.
Choice A is incorrect because FDIC insurance applies to bank deposit products (e.g., bank CDs, savings accounts) held at insured depository institutions, within insurance limits. Treasury securities are not bank deposits; they are direct government securities, so "FDIC-insured" is not the right concept. Treasuries are considered to have very low credit risk due to U.S. government backing, but that is different from FDIC insurance.
Choice C is incorrect because Treasuries trade in both the primary market (when issued by the Treasury) and the secondary market (after issuance). In fact, Treasuries are among the most actively traded securities in the world, and secondary-market trading is a major source of liquidity and price discovery. Investors can buy newly issued Treasuries at auction (primary) or purchase existing Treasuries from other investors and dealers (secondary).
Choice D is incorrect because securities issued by states and municipalities are municipal securities (muni bonds/notes), not Treasury securities. Treasuries are issued by the U.S. Department of the Treasury, while municipal bonds are issued by states, cities, counties, and other political subdivisions or authorities.
On the SIE, this question targets product knowledge: issuer identity, trading markets, and tax characteristics of government vs. municipal vs. bank products.
NEW QUESTION # 19
The expense ratio of a mutual fund is a measure of:
Answer: A
Explanation:
A mutual fund's expense ratio measures the fund's operating costs, making choice D correct. The expense ratio represents the annual cost of running the fund, expressed as a percentage of the fund's average net assets.
These ongoing expenses typically include the investment adviser's management fee, administrative costs, transfer agency costs, custody, accounting, legal and audit expenses, and in some cases distribution-related fees such as 12b-1 fees. The expense ratio is deducted from fund assets, which means it directly reduces the fund's returns to shareholders over time.
Choice A (stability) is incorrect because the expense ratio does not describe volatility, risk consistency, or portfolio behavior; it's about costs. Choice B (liquidity) is incorrect because liquidity refers to how readily investors can redeem or sell fund shares; open-end mutual funds generally redeem at NAV, but liquidity is not captured by the expense ratio. Choice C (profitability) is also incorrect because the expense ratio is not the fund's profit margin. Mutual funds are pass-through investment vehicles where investor returns come from portfolio performance net of costs; the expense ratio is a drag on performance, not a measure of the fund company's profitability.
SIE exams often test the practical implication: all else equal, higher expense ratios make it harder for a fund to outperform lower-cost alternatives, especially over long time horizons. Expense ratios are distinct from sales charges (loads), which are transaction-based and may be paid when buying or selling certain share classes. By contrast, the expense ratio is an ongoing annual cost embedded in the fund's daily NAV calculations, impacting long-term compounding and total return.
NEW QUESTION # 20
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