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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Insurance Fundamentals & General Principles | 15% | - Insurance contract elements and legal structure - Risk management and insurable interest - Indemnity, subrogation, utmost good faith |
| Topic 2: Property & Casualty Coverages | 25% | - Dwelling and Homeowners policies - General Liability and Commercial General Liability - Commercial Property and Businessowners policies - Specialty lines โ Inland Marine, Flood, Workers' Compensation, Crime - Automobile coverages โ Personal and Commercial |
| Topic 3: Claims Investigation & Adjusting Procedures | 20% | - Loss valuation, damage assessment, and estimating - Evidence gathering, coverage analysis, and policy interpretation - Claim intake, notice of loss, and initial investigation - Settlement negotiation, reservation of rights, and denial procedures |
| Topic 4: Ethics & Professional Responsibility | 15% | - Fraud detection and reporting obligations - Fiduciary duty, conflict of interest, and confidentiality - Fair claims handling standards and professional conduct |
| Topic 5: New York Insurance Law & Regulations | 25% | - Licensing requirements, eligibility, and examination rules - NY Insurance Law Articles and DFS regulations - Unfair Claims Settlement Practices Act / Regulation 64 - State-specific policy provisions and mandatory endorsements |
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NEW QUESTION # 51
The insured under a property policy has placed $100,000 of stock in storage. The stock is damaged by a covered cause of loss. What policy provision assures that the storage facility will NOT collect any claim payment?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - No benefit to bailee. A bailee is a person or organization that temporarily has possession or custody of another person's property. A commercial storage facility holding the insured's stock is therefore functioning as a bailee.
The commercial property condition commonly called No Benefit to Bailee prevents the insurance purchased by the property owner from directly or indirectly benefiting a person or organization merely because that party has custody of the covered property. Court decisions quoting standard commercial property wording state that a person or organization having custody of covered property does not benefit from the insured's property insurance.
The provision preserves the insurer's ability, where appropriate, to pursue recovery against a negligent bailee after paying the insured. Without such wording, a bailee might attempt to rely on the owner's insurance as protection against its own responsibility.
Liberalization automatically broadens coverage when specified policy changes occur. A mortgage clause protects qualifying mortgagees. Assignment concerns transfer of policy rights and generally requires insurer consent.
The Series 17-70 outline tests Commercial Property Conditions, Covered Property, loss conditions, subrogation concepts, and common policy provisions.
Thus, C is the precise answer.
NEW QUESTION # 52
An Individual Fidelity Bond protects a businessowner from economic losses caused by
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A - the dishonest actions of a specific employee. Fidelity insurance protects an employer against direct financial loss resulting from dishonest acts committed by employees. The defining feature of an Individual Fidelity Bond is that it applies to a specifically identified or named individual rather than to all employees or an entire class of positions.
Federal surety definitions describe an individual fidelity bond as protection against dishonesty with respect to a named individual. By contrast, a blanket fidelity bond covers all qualifying employees, while a blanket position or scheduled-position bond can apply according to the positions occupied rather than solely to a single named person.
Option B therefore more closely resembles a blanket or collective arrangement. Option C suggests multiple employees scheduled under one bond and therefore describes a scheduled-name concept rather than an individual fidelity bond. Option D concerns misconduct by an external supplier; fidelity coverage is principally designed around dishonest acts of covered employees, not ordinary breach of contract by third- party vendors.
Typical covered dishonest acts can include theft, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or other dishonest conduct satisfying the policy's definition and intent requirements.
The Series 17-70 surety/crime curriculum requires candidates to distinguish individual, schedule, position, and blanket fidelity bonds.
Therefore, A is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which is NOT a type of bond?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A - Obligee. An obligee is not a type of surety bond; it is one of the three parties to a surety bond. The three parties are the principal, the obligee, and the surety. The principal is the party whose performance or obligation is guaranteed. The obligee is the party requiring and benefiting from the bond. The surety is the organization that guarantees the principal's obligation according to the bond terms.
By contrast, bid bonds and performance bonds are recognized types of contract surety bonds. A bid bond supports the bidder's commitment to enter the contract and furnish required security if awarded the job. A performance bond guarantees that the principal will perform the contractual obligations covered by the bond.
"Court bond" is commonly used as a broad description for bonds required in judicial proceedings. The official Series 17-70 outline categorizes these as judicial bonds and separately lists such forms as attachment, replevin, appeal, injunction, and cost bonds.
The Series 17-70 outline makes the distinction explicit: it lists Principal, Obligee, and Surety under "Parties of a surety bond," while Bid and Performance appear under types of contract bonds, and judicial bonds appear as another bond category.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Charges for transporting a person injured in an aircraft accident by ambulance are covered under
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Aircraft Medical Payments coverage pays specified medical expenses resulting from bodily injury sustained in connection with a covered aircraft accident, generally without requiring the injured person first to establish negligence against the aircraft owner or operator.
AOPA's aviation-insurance guidance specifically states that aircraft Medical Payments coverage includes expenses such as ambulance, surgical, dental, and professional nursing services. It can also apply to injuries occurring while a person is entering or leaving the aircraft, subject to the policy's limits and conditions.
This protection is distinct from bodily injury liability coverage. Liability insurance responds when an insured is legally responsible for another person's bodily injury, whereas Medical Payments is designed to fund qualifying medical expenses on a limited no-fault basis.
Option B is incorrect because a deductible is the portion of a covered loss retained by the insured rather than a benefit paying medical expenses. Option C refers to the consideration paid for insurance coverage. Option D, fiduciary liability, protects against specified breaches of fiduciary duty and has no relationship to ambulance transportation following an aircraft accident.
The Series 17-70 curriculum includes specialized aviation insurance concepts together with medical-payment and liability distinctions.
Therefore, ambulance charges are properly classified under Medical Payments, making A correct.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following is the medical abbreviation for getting something done immediately?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B - Stat. The medical abbreviation "stat" derives from the Latin statim, meaning immediately. In medical documentation and treatment instructions, a stat order indicates that the specified procedure, medication, diagnostic test, or other clinical action should be performed without ordinary scheduling delay because prompt action is required.
Option A, A and P, does not mean immediately. Depending on context, similar abbreviations may refer to anatomy and physiology or another clinical designation. Option C, Rx, commonly refers to a prescription, prescribed treatment, or therapy and does not establish urgency. Option D, DNR, means Do Not Resuscitate and identifies an instruction concerning cardiopulmonary resuscitation rather than the timing of treatment.
Medical terminology is relevant to accident and health claim adjustment because adjusters must accurately interpret medical records, physician reports, treatment documentation, hospital bills, diagnostic information, and indications of emergency care. A misunderstanding of basic medical terminology can materially affect evaluation of causation, necessity of treatment, disability periods, and damages.
Accordingly, where a medical record directs that an action be performed immediately, "stat" is the recognized term.
Series 17-70 reference topics: Other Coverages - Accident and Health Claims, Medical Terminology, Medical Documentation, and Evaluation of Treatment Records.
NEW QUESTION # 56
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