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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Quality Initiatives- HEDIS Measures
- Patient Safety
Healthcare Regulations and Reimbursement- Risk Adjustment Models
  • 1. HCC (Hierarchical Condition Categories)
  • 2. RxHCC
- Medicare OPPS Payment Logic
  • 1. APC Classification
  • 2. Status Indicators
Disease Processes and Clinical Concepts- Anatomy and Physiology
  • 1. Pharmacology
  • 2. Pathophysiology
- Common Disease Categories
  • 1. Respiratory System
  • 2. Neoplasms
  • 3. Circulatory System
  • 4. Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
Clinical Documentation Integrity (CDI) Program Operations- Query Process
  • 1. Compliance and Best Practices
  • 2. Query Types
- Provider Engagement and Education
  • 1. Feedback Mechanisms

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q70-Q75):

NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following is designed to reduce claims denials and appeals by providing one-on-one feedback to the provider to increase accuracy in specific areas?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Targeted Probe and Educate (TPE) is an education-focused review initiative intended to improve billing accuracy and reduce future denials by combining targeted claim review with direct provider/supplier feedback. In outpatient CDI terms, TPE aligns with a "fix-forward" approach: auditors identify specific error patterns (often documentation, medical necessity, coding, or coverage rule issues), then provide one-on-one education so the provider can correct processes and documentation habits. This is distinct from Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs), which primarily identify and recoup improper payments, often after the fact, and are not structured as an individualized education cycle. The OIG Work Plan identifies oversight priorities and areas of potential fraud/waste/abuse; it does not deliver provider-level coaching to reduce denials. CERT measures Medicare improper payment rates through sampling and can drive policy/education broadly, but it is not designed as individualized, iterative provider education. Because TPE is specifically built around targeted review plus direct education to prevent repeat errors and reduce appeals, it is the best answer.


NEW QUESTION # 71
CMS-HCCs are used to

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CMS-HCC model is a risk adjustment methodology used primarily to set capitated payments for Medicare Advantage (MA) organizations based on the expected cost of caring for their enrolled beneficiaries. Under this approach, CMS calculates a Risk Adjustment Factor (RAF) for each member using demographic variables (such as age/sex and certain entitlement factors) plus disease burden captured from ICD-10-CM diagnoses that map to Hierarchical Condition Categories (HCCs). The resulting RAF increases or decreases the plan's payment to better match predicted healthcare needs-higher RAF for sicker, more complex patients and lower RAF for healthier patients. ACDIS outpatient CDI education emphasizes that the purpose is not physician reimbursement based on a "principal diagnosis" (an inpatient concept) and not payment distribution tied directly to quality performance (that aligns more with MIPS/VBP frameworks). It also does not adjust capitation payments specifically "to physicians," nor does it exclude advanced practice providers in the way described. The correct use is to determine MA plan capitation payments through risk-adjusted member-level projections.


NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following BEST represents performance metrics important to an outpatient CDI program?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Outpatient CDI performance is best measured by metrics that reflect ambulatory documentation quality, risk-adjustment accuracy, and provider engagement. HCC capture rate is central because outpatient CDI frequently supports risk adjustment (e.g., CMS-HCC/HHS-HCC) and aims to ensure chronic conditions are accurately documented, linked, and reported when they are actively managed. Unspecified code utilization rate is a practical quality metric for provider education because high unspecified use often signals missed clinical specificity (severity, laterality, acuity, manifestations, staging) that can reduce coding accuracy, obscure patient complexity, and weaken data used for benchmarking and quality reporting. Query response rate is also a core operational KPI: it reflects provider participation, workflow effectiveness, and the CDI team's ability to obtain timely clarifications that support compliant coding and complete clinical representation. In contrast, Medicare CMI and severity of illness are predominantly inpatient-focused constructs and are not the primary yardsticks for outpatient CDI program success. While aggregate RAF and quality indicators matter, the best "program performance" set is the one directly tied to outpatient CDI levers: HCC capture, specificity/unspecified reduction, and query responsiveness.


NEW QUESTION # 73
A female patient who underwent total hip replacement 2 weeks ago is in for a follow-up visit with her PCP. The visit note states: "Patient complains of fatigue and lethargy. Hgb on discharge was 10.4gm/dL - now is 8.6 gm/dL. Will start FeSO4 325mg po daily with food. Repeat H/H in 2 weeks. She has return visit with Ortho then." Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Outpatient CDI practice supports accurate, provider-validated diagnoses; CDI should not "diagnose," direct the provider to add a specific condition, or independently add diagnoses to the claim. Here, the documentation shows clinical indicators (fatigue/lethargy and hemoglobin drop from 10.4 to 8.6) and a treatment plan (oral iron and repeat H/H), but the provider has not stated a definitive diagnosis such as postoperative anemia, iron deficiency anemia, acute blood loss anemia, or anemia due to chronic disease. The best CDI action is to issue a compliant query that summarizes the relevant indicators and treatment and asks the provider to document the appropriate diagnosis and etiology, if clinically supported, and to link it to the plan of care. Option A is inappropriate because it leads the provider toward a specific diagnosis. Option D is noncompliant because coding must follow documented provider diagnoses. Option B may be a reasonable internal check, but it does not resolve the documentation gap.


NEW QUESTION # 74
A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following diagnoses are reportable?

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the outpatient/ambulatory setting, ICD-10-CM reporting rules applied in CDI education distinguish clearly between confirmed diagnoses and "uncertain" or "rule out" conditions. Terms such as "rule out," "suspected," or "probable" generally are not coded as established diagnoses in the outpatient record because the encounter is often for evaluation and testing rather than definitive confirmation. Instead, coders report the patient's presenting signs and symptoms when a definitive condition has not been documented as confirmed by the provider. Here, the clinician ordered diagnostic testing (ECG and chest x-ray) specifically to rule out myocardial infarction (MI), but no final diagnosis of MI or angina is documented in the scenario. Therefore, "rule out MI" is not reportable, and neither is acute MI or angina unless explicitly diagnosed. The reportable conditions are the symptoms that drove the visit and required evaluation: chest pain (captured as "other chest pain" in the options), shortness of breath, and nausea.


NEW QUESTION # 75
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