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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC
Exam Name:AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Certification Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Related Certifications:Certified Inpatient Coder (CIC)
Certified Coding Specialist (CCS)
Certified Outpatient Coder (COC)
Available Languages:English
Exam Format:Open-book (CPT, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS manuals allowed), Multiple Choice Questions
Passing Score:Approximately 70%
Real Exam Qty:150 multiple-choice questions
Exam Duration:340 minutes
Exam Price:$399–$499 USD (varies by membership and region)
Certificate Validity Period:2 years (renewal via Continuing Education Units - CEUs)
Recommended Training:AAPC CPC Training Course
AAPC CPC Practice Exams
Exam Registration:AAPC CPC Certification Page
AAPC Exam Registration Portal
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Available via online proctored exam or authorized testing centers (in-person).
Pre Condition:No formal prerequisite required. Recommended: 1–2 years of medical coding experience or completion of AAPC CPC training.
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certification/cpc/

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 2
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 3
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 4
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 5
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 6
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 7
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 8
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 9
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 10
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 11
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 12
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 13
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
Topic 14
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 15
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q19-Q24):

NEW QUESTION # 19
(A patient visits her provider's office because she is experiencing persistent headaches. Her provider sends her to a radiology facility to do aCT scan of the brain without contrast. The images are sent to the provider, and the providerreads and interpretsthe scan. What CPT coding of the radiology service is reported by the provider?)

Answer: B

Explanation:
CPT70450describes aCT of the head/brain without contrast. When aradiology facilityperforms the technical portion (scanner, technologist, supplies) and theprovider only interprets and reportsthe study, the provider bills theprofessional componentusing modifier-26. That is exactly what the vignette describes: the radiology facility performed the scan, and the provider received images and provided the interpretation-so the provider reports70450-26. Reporting70450alone would imply billing the global service (professional + technical), which would be incorrect because the provider did not supply the equipment/technical resources. Modifier- TCis used to bill thetechnical component, which would be reported by the facility, not the interpreting provider in this scenario. Modifier-26-TCtogether is not appropriate because it would contradict itself (professional and technical simultaneously). CPC exam tip: always determinewho performedthe technical work andwho interpreted; then use-26for interpretation-only billing.


NEW QUESTION # 20
A patient presents with recurrent spontaneous episodes of dizziness of unclear etiology. Caloric vestibular testing is performed irrigating both ears with warm and cold water while evaluating the patient's eye movements. There is a total of three irrigations.
What CPT coding is reported?

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 21
A 56-year-old female patient with a history of degenerative disc disease at levels T2-T3 and T4-T5 underwent a surgical repair procedure. Two surgeons will be working together as primary surgeons Surgeon X: Carried out the anterior exposure of the spine and mobilized the great vessels, assisted Dr. Z. and performed the closure.
Surgeon Z: Performed a minimal anterior discectomy and fusion at T2-T3 and T4-T5 levels using an anterior interbody technique and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft.
What is the CPT coding for the two surgeons?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The case describes two primary surgeons working together, which supports modifier 62 (co-surgeons) on the spine fusion/discectomy codes.
22556 = primary level anterior thoracic discectomy and fusion (T2-T3)
22585 = each additional thoracic level (T4-T5)
20931 = structural allograft (reported by the surgeon who solely performed/placed the structural allograft, per the statement-Surgeon Z) Why D fits best:
Surgeon X performed the approach/exposure and closure and assisted the primary surgeon → reports the co-surgeon spine procedure codes (22556-62, 22585-62).
Surgeon Z performed the discectomy/fusion and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft → reports 22556-62, 22585-62, plus 20931.
Options with -51 are not correct here (and add-on/related reporting logic in CPT does not support the way -51 is applied in those options).


NEW QUESTION # 22
A surgeon performs a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis at the same surgical session.
What CPT@ coding is reported?

Answer: A

Explanation:
For a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis performed during the same surgical session, the correct CPTcodes are:
1. 19303-50: This code represents a complete mastectomy (removal of breast tissue) performed bilaterally (indicated by the -50 modifier).
2. 19340-50: This code is for the immediate insertion of a breast prosthesis following mastectomy, also performed bilaterally.
Explanation of other options:
A: 19303-50, 19342-50: Incorrect because 19342 is for the insertion of a breast implant, which differs from a prosthesis.
B: 19305-50, 19340-50: 19305 describes a modified radical mastectomy, which is more extensive than what is documented here.
C: 19325-50: This code represents a breast augmentation procedure, not a mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.
Thus, the correct answer is D. 19303-50, 19340-50, which accurately describes a bilateral mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.


NEW QUESTION # 23
A 63-year-old is seen by his. primary care physician for an annual exam. His last exam with the primary care physician was four years ago. He has no complaints.
What CPT code is reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
99386 = Initial comprehensive preventive medicine E/M, new patient, age 40-64 Patient has not been seen in 4 years, which meets the new patient definition (no professional services in past 3 years).
Age = 63
No problem-oriented complaints # preventive service only
Why others are incorrect:
99396 / 99397 - Established patient codes
99387 - Age 65+


NEW QUESTION # 24
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