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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Financial Statement Analysis | - Balance sheet and income statement interpretation - Financial ratios - Cash flow analysis |
| Risk and Return | - Expected return - Portfolio risk and diversification |
| Time Value of Money | - Annuities and perpetuities - Present and future value calculations |
| Cost of Capital and Valuation | - Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) - Bond and stock valuation basics |
| Capital Budgeting | - Net present value (NPV) - Payback period analysis - Internal rate of return (IRR) |
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NEW QUESTION # 17
What is a drawback of using the Gordon growth model for estimating the cost of common equity?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Gordon growth model estimates the cost of common equity based on dividends, assuming dividends grow at a constant rate indefinitely. While the model is simple and intuitive, its main drawback is that it can only be applied to firms that pay dividends and have stable, predictable growth rates. Many firms-especially young, high-growth, or technology companies-either do not pay dividends or experience volatile growth, making the model inappropriate for them. Additionally, small changes in the growth rate assumption can lead to large changes in estimated equity cost, increasing sensitivity and potential estimation error. Financial management texts emphasize that while the Gordon growth model is useful for mature, dividend-paying firms, it lacks flexibility across industries and life-cycle stages. Option D correctly identifies this key limitation.
NEW QUESTION # 18
What is the bid-ask spread?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The bid-ask spread is a fundamental concept in capital markets that reflects market liquidity and transaction costs. Thebid priceis the highest price a buyer (or market maker/specialist) is willing to pay for a security, while theask priceis the lowest price at which a seller is willing to sell. The difference between these two prices is the bid-ask spread. From a financial management perspective, the spread compensates market makers for providing liquidity, bearing inventory risk, and facilitating continuous trading. A narrow bid-ask spread generally indicates a highly liquid security with strong trading volume and low transaction costs, while a wide spread suggests lower liquidity, higher risk, or limited information availability. Investors effectively pay the spread when buying or selling securities, making it an implicit cost of trading. This concept is critical when evaluating market efficiency, trading strategies, and execution costs, especially for large institutional trades. Option D correctly defines the bid-ask spread as the difference between buying and selling prices quoted by specialists or dealers.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Why might a firm's net income not equal its cash flows from operations for a period?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Net income and cash flow from operations are not the same because net income is prepared using accrual accounting, while cash flow from operations focuses on actual cash movement. Under accrual accounting, revenue may be recorded when earned rather than when cash is received, and expenses may be recorded when incurred rather than when cash is paid. In addition, net income includes noncash expenses such as depreciation and amortization, which reduce accounting profit without reducing current-period cash. Changes in working capital accounts, such as accounts receivable, inventory, and accounts payable, also create differences between net income and operating cash flow. For example, a company may report strong sales and net income, but if many customers have not yet paid, cash flow from operations may still be low. Financial statement analysis places strong emphasis on understanding these differences because cash flow is essential for liquidity, debt repayment, and ongoing operations. Choice A is correct because it directly captures the main reasons net income and cash flow from operations differ. The other choices incorrectly describe the purpose or nature of net income and cash flow reporting.
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NEW QUESTION # 20
In the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), what does a beta (#) greater than 1 signify for a portfolio?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Within the CAPM framework, beta quantifies the degree of systematic risk relative to the market portfolio, which by definition has a beta of 1. A portfolio with a beta greater than 1 carries more systematic risk than the market, meaning its returns are expected to be more sensitive to market movements. This higher sensitivity increases both upside potential and downside exposure. According to CAPM, investors require a higher expected return for bearing this additional risk. Importantly, a higher beta does not guarantee superior performance; it simply reflects greater volatility relative to the market. Option B accurately captures this risk-based interpretation.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Why might investors choose to invest in junk bonds?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Junk bonds, also known as high-yield bonds, are issued by firms with lower credit ratings and therefore higher default risk. To compensate investors for this additional risk, these bonds offer higher interest rates than investment-grade bonds. From a financial management and portfolio perspective, investors may include junk bonds to enhance portfolio returns, particularly when they believe default risk is overstated or when economic conditions are favorable. Junk bonds do not guarantee returns and are not backed by government guarantees, making options A and D incorrect. They also do not consistently outperform equities, especially during periods of financial stress. Option B accurately reflects the risk- return tradeoff that underpins investment decisions in capital market theory: higher expected returns are associated with higher risk.
NEW QUESTION # 22
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