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| Certification Vendor: | International Institute of Business Analysis (IIBA) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | IIBA Certificate in Cybersecurity Analysis (CCA) |
| Exam Number: | IIBA-CCA |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Recommended Training: | IIBA Cybersecurity Analysis Learning Resources |
| Exam Registration: | IIBA Certification Portal |
| Sample Questions: | IIBA IIBA-CCA Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online, typically computer-based assessment (exact delivery details depend on IIBA exam provider) |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites published; familiarity with business analysis concepts is recommended. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.iiba.org/business-analysis-certifications/certificate-in-cybersecurity-analysis-cca/ |
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NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following terms represents an accidental exploitation of a vulnerability?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In cybersecurity risk terminology, an event is an observable occurrence that can affect systems, services, or data. An event may be benign, harmful, intentional, or accidental. When a vulnerability is exploited accidentally-for example, a user unintentionally triggers a software flaw, a misconfiguration causes unintended exposure, or a system process mishandles input and causes data corruption-the occurrence is best categorized as an event. Cybersecurity documentation often distinguishes between the possibility of harm and the actual occurrence of a harmful condition. A threat is the potential for an unwanted incident, such as an actor or circumstance that could exploit a vulnerability. A threat does not require that exploitation actually happens; it describes risk potential. An agent is the entity that acts (such as a person, malware, or process) and may be malicious or non-malicious, but "agent" is not the term for the occurrence itself. A response refers to the actions taken after detection, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned; it is part of incident handling, not the accidental exploitation.
Therefore, the term that represents the actual accidental exploitation occurrence is event, because it captures the real-world happening that may trigger alerts, investigations, and potentially incident response activities if impact is significant.
NEW QUESTION # 60
What privacy legislation governs the use of healthcare data in the United States?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the United States, HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is the primary federal framework that governs how certain healthcare information must be protected and used. In cybersecurity and compliance documentation, HIPAA is most often discussed through its implementing rules, especially the Privacy Rule and the Security Rule. The Privacy Rule establishes when protected health information may be used or disclosed and grants individuals rights over their health information. The Security Rule focuses specifically on safeguarding electronic protected health information by requiring administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.
From a security controls perspective, HIPAA-driven programs typically include risk analysis and risk management, policies and workforce training, access controls based on least privilege, unique user identification, authentication controls, audit logging, integrity protections, transmission security such as encryption for data in transit, and contingency planning such as backups and disaster recovery. HIPAA also expects organizations to manage third-party risk through appropriate agreements and oversight when vendors handle protected health information.
The other options do not fit the question. The Privacy Act generally applies to U.S. federal agencies' handling of personal records, PIPEDA is a Canadian privacy law, and PCI-DSS is an industry security standard focused on payment card data rather than healthcare data. Therefore, HIPAA is the correct legislation for U.S. healthcare data protection requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following control methods is used to protect integrity?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Integrity means information and systems remain accurate, complete, and protected from unauthorized or improper modification. The Principle of Least Privilege is a direct integrity protection control because it limits who can change data and what changes they are allowed to make. Under least privilege, users, applications, and service accounts receive only the minimum permissions needed to perform approved tasks, and nothing more. This reduces the chance that an attacker using a compromised account can alter records, manipulate transactions, or change configurations, and it also reduces accidental changes by well-meaning users who do not need write or administrative rights.
Least privilege is commonly enforced through role-based access control, separation of duties, restricted administrative roles, just-in-time elevation for privileged tasks, and periodic access reviews to remove excess permissions. These practices are emphasized in cybersecurity frameworks because integrity failures often occur when excessive access allows unauthorized edits to sensitive data, logs, security settings, or application code.
The other options relate to security but are less directly tied to integrity as the primary objective. Biometric verification is an authentication method that helps confirm identity; it supports access control broadly, but it does not by itself limit modification capability once access is granted. Anti-malicious code detection helps prevent malware that could corrupt data, but it is primarily a detection/prevention tool rather than the foundational control for authorized modification. Backups and redundancy primarily support availability and recovery after corruption, not the prevention of unauthorized changes.
NEW QUESTION # 62
NIST 800-30 defines cyber risk as a function of the likelihood of a given threat-source exercising a potential vulnerability, and:
Answer: A
Explanation:
NIST SP 800-30 describes risk using a classic risk model: risk is a function of likelihood and impact. In this model, a threat-source may exploit a vulnerability, producing a threat event that results in adverse consequences. The likelihood component reflects how probable it is that a threat event will occur and successfully cause harm, considering factors such as threat capability and intent (or in non-adversarial cases, the frequency of hazards), the existence and severity of vulnerabilities, exposure, and the strength of current safeguards. However, likelihood alone does not define risk; a highly likely event that causes minimal harm may be less important than a less likely event that causes severe harm.
The second required component is the impact-the magnitude of harm to the organization if the adverse event occurs. Impact is commonly evaluated across mission and business outcomes, including financial loss, operational disruption, legal or regulatory consequences, reputational damage, and loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability. This is why option D is correct: NIST's definition explicitly ties the risk expression to the resulting impact on the organization.
The other options may influence likelihood assessment or control selection, but they are not the missing definitional element. Detection probability and control assurance relate to monitoring and governance; predisposing conditions can shape likelihood. None replace the
NEW QUESTION # 63
How should categorization information be used in business impact analysis?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 64
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