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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation | - Airway management
|
| Topic 2: Trauma | - Traumatic injuries
|
| Topic 3: Cardiology & Resuscitation | - Cardiac emergencies
|
| Topic 4: EMS Operations | - Operational procedures
|
| Topic 5: Medical, Obstetrics & Pediatrics | - Medical emergencies
|
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NEW QUESTION # 217
You have achieved ROSC in a 77-year-old female. She remains unresponsive and her vital signs are BP 94
/58, P 82, and R 18. In what position should she be placed?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Left lateral recumbent.
This patient has return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) but remains unresponsive. In such cases, airway protection becomes the priority.
According to NREMT and resuscitation guidelines:
Unresponsive patients who are breathing adequately should be placed in the recovery position (lateral recumbent) to maintain a patent airway and reduce the risk of aspiration.
This position allows secretions or vomit to drain out of the mouth instead of entering the airway.
Why B is correct:
"Place unresponsive patients with adequate breathing in the recovery position." The left lateral recumbent position is the standard recovery position used in EMS.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Supine: Increases risk of airway obstruction and aspiration in an unresponsive patient.
C). Trendelenburg: Not recommended; can worsen respiratory function and does not improve outcomes.
D). Head elevated 45°: May be used in conscious patients or certain conditions, but not ideal for an unresponsive patient without airway control.
Exact Extracts:
"Unresponsive patients who are breathing adequately should be placed in the recovery position."
"The recovery position helps maintain an open airway and reduces aspiration risk."
"Airway management is the priority after ROSC."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Cardiology & Resuscitation
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Post-Resuscitation Care AHA BLS Guidelines - Post-Cardiac Arrest Care
NEW QUESTION # 218
A 21-year-old patient has difficulty swallowing. The patient is leaning forward and drooling. The skin is hot to the touch. The vital signs are BP 128/82 mmHg, P 116/min, R 22/min, and SpO# 94% on room air. What should the EMT do for this patient? Select the two correct options.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
This patient is showing signs of epiglottitis or a serious upper airway obstruction - drooling, difficulty swallowing, fever, and tripod positioning.
EMT actions should include:
* Position of comfort to avoid airway agitation
* Gentle suctioning if secretions threaten airway
Do not force the patient to lie flat, as this may worsen airway compromise. CPAP and humidified oxygen may be considered in hospital care but not as first-line interventions during prehospital airway management in epiglottitis.
References:
NREMT Airway Management Guidelines - Upper Airway Obstruction
National EMS Education Standards - Respiratory Emergencies
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation (11th ed.) - Chapter on Airway and Breathing Emergencies
NEW QUESTION # 219
A 26-year-old male is choking. He is awake and has no air movement. He has a history of morbid obesity.
You should
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
For a conscious adult with complete airway obstruction, abdominal thrusts are typically indicated. However, NREMT guidelines specify that chest thrusts should be used instead for patients who are morbidly obese or pregnant, because abdominal thrusts may be ineffective or unsafe.
Option D is correct because chest thrusts provide effective airway clearance while accommodating body habitus.
Options A and B are inappropriate for a conscious patient.
Option C is incorrect because abdominal thrusts may not be effective in morbidly obese patients.
NREMT stresses modifying airway obstruction techniques based on patient size and condition.
NEW QUESTION # 220
An 84-year-old patient becomes dyspneic, feels faint, and develops blurred vision when going from sitting to standing. When at rest, the patient ' s symptoms resolve. The vital signs are BP 188/90, P 78, R 20, and SpO#
93% on room air. Which of the following causes is the patient ' s most likely presentation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Atherosclerosis.
This patient is experiencing orthostatic symptoms:
* Dyspnea
* Lightheadedness (feels faint)
* Blurred vision
* Symptoms triggered by standing and relieved with rest
These findings strongly suggest impaired cerebral perfusion during position change, commonly seen in elderly patients with atherosclerosis.
Why A is correct (Atherosclerosis):
Atherosclerosis leads to:
* Narrowed and stiffened arteries
* Reduced ability to adjust to positional changes
* Decreased cerebral blood flow when standing
NREMT-based medical guidance emphasizes:
* "Elderly patients commonly experience perfusion changes due to vascular stiffness."
* "Reduced cerebral perfusion may cause dizziness and visual disturbances with position changes." Why the other options are incorrect:
* B. Cardiac arrhythmia: Typically causes irregular pulse and symptoms not specifically tied to positional changes.
* C. Transient ischemic attack (TIA): Produces focal neurologic deficits (e.g., unilateral weakness, speech difficulty), not just position-related symptoms.
* D. Dissecting aortic aneurysm: Presents with severe, tearing chest/back pain and hemodynamic instability, not transient positional symptoms.
Exact Extracts:
* "Reduced cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness and syncope, especially in older adults."
* "Atherosclerosis decreases vascular elasticity and affects blood flow regulation."
* "Orthostatic symptoms are common in elderly patients with vascular disease." References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Medical Emergencies (Cardiovascular Disorders) NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Geriatric Emergencies Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Cardiovascular and Neurologic Disorders
NEW QUESTION # 221
A 17-year-old patient was stung by a bee and is now confused and short of breath. The vital signs are BP 78
/60, P 140, R 26 and shallow, and SpO# 86% on room air. After administering epinephrine, what should the EMT do next?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask.
* Anaphylaxis (bee sting)
* Hypotension (78/60) # shock
* Tachycardia (140)
* Low SpO# (86%)
* Shortness of breath
This is a life-threatening allergic reaction requiring aggressive airway and oxygen management.
* Provides high-flow, high-concentration oxygen (up to ~90-95%)
* Indicated for patients with:
* Hypoxia (SpO# < 94%)
* Respiratory distress
* Shock states
* After epinephrine, oxygen therapy is the next immediate step
* A. Closely monitor SpO# # Monitoring alone is insufficient; intervention is needed
* B. Nasal cannula # Delivers low-flow oxygen, inadequate for severe hypoxia
* C. Assist ventilations with BVM # Indicated only if respiratory failure or inadequate breathing, not yet present
* "Administer high-flow oxygen to patients with hypoxia or respiratory distress."
* "Anaphylaxis requires epinephrine and supportive airway/oxygen management."
* "Use a nonrebreather mask for patients requiring high-concentration oxygen." References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
National EMS Education Standards - Allergic Reactions and Anaphylaxis
NREMT Candidate Handbook - Patient Management
NEW QUESTION # 222
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