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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Cloud Infrastructure and Platform Security | 20% | - Compute and virtualization security - Storage security and protection - Application security in cloud environments - Network security: segmentation, firewalls, WAFs |
| Identity and Access Management (IAM) | 20% | - Identity providers and federation - Least privilege and separation of duties - Authentication, authorization, and accounting - Zero Trust architecture principles |
| Cloud Security Principles and Concepts | 20% | - Cloud service models: IaaS, PaaS, SaaS - Security frameworks and standards (NIST, ISO 27001, CSA) - Cloud deployment models: public, private, hybrid, multi-cloud - Shared responsibility model |
| Cloud Data Security | 20% | - Encryption: at rest, in transit, in use - Key management and secrets protection - Data classification and lifecycle management - Data privacy and compliance requirements |
| Security Operations and Incident Response | 10% | - Disaster recovery and business continuity - Threat detection and vulnerability management - Incident response planning and execution |
| Governance, Risk, and Compliance | 10% | - Compliance with regulations (GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS) - Risk assessment and management - Audit, logging, and monitoring |
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NEW QUESTION # 40
Which management process involves multiple key holders, each with access to a portion of the information?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Key escrow is the management process that involves multiple key holders, where each party has access to a portion of the cryptographic information. Managing Cloud principles explain that key escrow is designed to ensure availability and recoverability of encrypted data while maintaining security controls.
In this model, encryption keys are stored securely with trusted third parties or divided among multiple custodians. No single individual has full access to the complete key, reducing the risk of misuse or compromise. Key escrow is often used to support compliance, lawful access requirements, and business continuity needs, ensuring that encrypted data can be recovered if the primary key holder is unavailable.
The other options do not fit this definition. Recovery refers to restoring keys or data, revocation disables compromised keys, and distribution focuses on delivering keys to authorized systems. Therefore, escrow is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 41
An accountant in an organization is allowed access to a company's human resources database only to adjust the number of hours that the organization's employees have worked in a fiscal year. However, the accountant modifies an employee's personal information. Which part of the STRIDE model describes this situation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The STRIDE threat model identifies six categories: Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, and Elevation of privilege. In this scenario, the accountant modified data they were not authorized to change. This is an act ofTampering, which refers to unauthorized alteration of data or systems.
Spoofing would involve impersonating another identity, denial of service would block availability, and elevation of privilege would involve gaining higher access rights. The accountant already had legitimate access but misused it to alter data outside their scope of responsibility.
Tampering compromises data integrity, one of the pillars of the CIA triad. In cloud and enterprise systems, safeguards against tampering include role-based access control, least privilege, and auditing to detect unauthorized changes. Recognizing this as tampering helps in identifying insider misuse and implementing compensating controls.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which U.S. law requires all publicly traded corporations in the United States to provide information about their financial status and implements controls to ensure the accuracy of the disclosed information?
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheSarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act of 2002was enacted to restore investor confidence after major corporate accounting scandals. It requires publicly traded corporations to maintain accurate financial reporting and implement internal controls to safeguard the integrity of disclosed information.
GLBA focuses on protecting consumer financial data, GDPR is a European regulation governing privacy, and the CLOUD Act addresses cross-border law enforcement access to data. Only SOX directly mandates financial disclosure and corporate accountability.
SOX compliance includes maintaining audit trails, securing data integrity, and ensuring that executives certify financial statements. Failure to comply carries severe penalties, both civil and criminal. For cloud environments, SOX compliance extends to ensuring IT systems used for financial data are secure, monitored, and auditable.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which phase of the cloud data life cycle involves activities such as data categorization and classification, including data labeling, marking, tagging, and assigning metadata?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The cloud data life cycle defines distinct stages that data goes through from its origin until its disposal. The Createphase is the very first stage, and this is where data is generated or captured by systems, applications, or users. At this point, data does not yet have context for storage or use, so it must be appropriately categorized and classified. Activities like labeling, marking, tagging, and assigning metadata are critical because they establish the foundation for enforcing controls throughout the rest of the life cycle.
Classification ensures that data is aligned with sensitivity levels, regulatory requirements, and business value.
For example, financial records may be labeled "confidential" while general marketing content may be marked
"public." These distinctions guide how encryption, access controls, and monitoring will be applied in subsequent phases such as storage, sharing, or use.
According to industry frameworks, starting security at theCreatephase ensures that controls "follow the data" across environments. Without proper classification at creation, organizations risk mismanaging sensitive data downstream.
NEW QUESTION # 44
An organization's security architects determined that all authentication and authorization requests need to be validated before any employee can access corporate resources. Because of this, the organization needs to implement a system that stores and manages the employees' credential information and then validates any requests sent. Which system would allow the organization to meet the architects' requirements?
Answer: C
Explanation:
AnIdentity Provider (IdP)is a system that stores and manages identity information and validates authentication and authorization requests. IdPs are critical in cloud and hybrid environments, supporting protocols such as SAML, OAuth, and OpenID Connect for federated access.
An HSM manages encryption keys, not identities. Zero Trust is a security philosophy requiring continuous verification, but the system that enforces authentication is the IdP. A bastion host provides secure administrative access but does not manage identity.
By using an IdP, organizations centralize credential management, enforce multifactor authentication, and integrate with Single Sign-On (SSO). This reduces password fatigue, increases security, and ensures consistent access control policies across applications and services.
NEW QUESTION # 45
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