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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Dimensions of Care | - Psychosocial Aspects
|
| Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
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NEW QUESTION # 287
A prepubertal 9-year-old girl with severe developmental disability is brought to your office by her parents.
They are seeing you to discuss some difficulties that might occur with puberty. They are afraid that menses will complicate hygiene care and they have heard of significant mood/behavioural changes in this population when menses occur. Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In girls with developmental disabilities, menstrual management should follow the same ethical and clinical principles as for other adolescents, emphasizing least invasive, reversible options and respect for future autonomy. Menstrual suppression may be appropriate to assist with hygiene and quality of life; however, hormonal methods are generally initiated after the onset of menarche to confirm pubertal development and exclude underlying endocrine disorders. Therefore, extended progestin-only therapy (e.g., depot medroxyprogesterone acetate) should not be started before menses begin. Hysterectomy is inappropriate as first-line management due to its irreversible nature, surgical risks, and significant ethical concerns regarding sterilization. Continuous combined oral contraceptives are not contraindicated and are commonly used for therapeutic amenorrhea. Evidence does not show consistent worsening of behavioural symptoms with appropriate hormonal suppression. Girls with developmental disabilities typically experience normal pubertal progression. MCCQE objectives emphasize patient-centered care, least restrictive interventions, ethical considerations in consent and capacity, and appropriate menstrual management strategies in adolescents with special needs.
NEW QUESTION # 288
A 34-year-old man presents to your office with a 2-week history of headaches and double vision when he looks to the right. On physical examination, you note that he is unable to gaze laterally with his right eye.
Which one of the following cranial nerves is most likely affected?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The inability to gaze laterally with the right eye indicates dysfunction of the right lateral rectus muscle , which is innervated by cranial nerve VI (the abducens nerve). The primary action of the lateral rectus muscle is abduction of the eye (movement away from the midline). Damage to the abducens nerve results in an inability to abduct the affected eye, leading to horizontal diplopia that worsens when looking toward the side of the lesion.
MCCQE objectives emphasize understanding cranial nerve function and localization. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) controls most extraocular movements but not lateral rectus. Trochlear nerve (CN IV) innervates the superior oblique muscle, affecting downward and inward gaze. The optic nerve (CN II) is responsible for vision, not eye movement. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) provides facial sensation and mastication motor function.
Headache with a new sixth nerve palsy may raise concern for increased intracranial pressure or intracranial pathology, as CN VI is vulnerable due to its long intracranial course. Further evaluation is warranted.
NEW QUESTION # 289
A 31-year-old man presents to the office with concerns about his heart. Three months ago, his father died of a myocardial infarction at age 58 years. He states that since the death of his father, he has experienced episodes in which his heart will start racing, causing him to feel short of breath, dizzy, and nauseous. He is afraid that he will die during these episodes. Findings from a physical examination, electrocardiogram, Holter monitoring, echocardiogram, and complete blood count are normal. Serum electrolyte level, troponin level, and thyroid function studies are all within normal limits. Which one of the following options is the most appropriate?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient presents with panic-like somatic symptoms triggered by bereavement. Normal investigations rule out cardiac pathology. Grief therapy is appropriate as the underlying stressor is unresolved grief and anxiety.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Grief and Anxiety Disorders:
"Bereavement-related anxiety and somatization are common. Grief counseling can help reduce somatic and psychological symptoms when medical causes are ruled out." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Anxiety and Bereavement:
"Candidates should recognize psychological sequelae of grief, including panic and health anxiety, and provide appropriate psychological support." Metoprolol (C) is not indicated without confirmed cardiac cause. Lorazepam (B) may offer short-term relief but does not address the underlying grief. Stress testing (A) is unnecessary with repeated normal investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 290
You are undertaking the retrospective analysis of a laboratory-confirmed influenza A virus outbreak that occurred in a long-term care facility last year. Among the 163 residents in the facility during the outbreak, 101 residents had new-onset fever, cough, myalgias, and congestion. Of these, 37 residents were transferred to acute care. Of these, 17 residents died. Which one of the following is the best estimate of the attack rate in residents at the facility?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The attack rate is a measure of cumulative incidence used in outbreak investigations. It represents the proportion of individuals at risk who develop the disease during a specified time period. MCCQE objectives emphasize understanding key epidemiologic measures, particularly in institutional outbreaks.
In this scenario, 163 residents were at risk during the influenza outbreak. Of these, 101 developed new-onset symptoms consistent with influenza. Therefore, the attack rate is calculated as:
Number of new cases ÷ Number of people at risk
= 101 ÷ 163
The number transferred to acute care (37) reflects disease severity but does not represent all cases. The number of deaths (17) would be used to calculate the case fatality rate (17/101), not the attack rate.
Thus, the best estimate of the attack rate among residents is 101/163 , representing the proportion of the at- risk population who became ill during the outbreak.
NEW QUESTION # 291
A 69-year-old woman with long-standing hypertension presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of persistent chest and back pain. A posteroanterior chest radiograph shows suspicious widening of the mediastinal shadow. Which one of the following is most likely to yield a clinical diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The presentation is highly suspicious for acute aortic dissection - sudden chest/back pain and mediastinal widening on chest x-ray. The most definitive and widely available test is contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the chest.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology, Aortic Dissection:
"CT angiography of the chest is the gold standard for stable patients with suspected aortic dissection. Look for mediastinal widening on chest x-ray as a clue." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Cardiovascular Disease:
"Candidates should recognize acute aortic dissection and select appropriate imaging, such as CT chest, for diagnosis in stable patients." Transthoracic echo (A) may miss dissections. ECG (C) helps rule out MI but not dissection. V/Q scan (D) and pulmonary angiography (E) are for suspected pulmonary embolism.
NEW QUESTION # 292
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