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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Governance, Risk, and Compliance | approx. 22% | - Security policies and compliance requirements - Business continuity and disaster recovery planning - Risk management frameworks |
| Security Operations | approx. 25% | - Threat management and response - Security monitoring and analysis - Incident response and recovery |
| Security Architecture | approx. 21% | - Cloud and hybrid environment security - Secure enterprise architecture design - Secure system design principles |
| Security Engineering and Cryptography | approx. 23% | - Identity and access management design - Secure network and system engineering - Cryptographic solutions and implementations |
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NEW QUESTION # 572
While reviewing recent modem reports, a security officer discovers that several employees were contacted by the same individual who impersonated a recruiter. Which of the following best describes this type of correlation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The situation where several employees were contacted by the same individual impersonating a recruiter best describes a spear-phishing campaign. Here's why:
* Targeted Approach: Spear-phishing involves targeting specific individuals within an organization with personalized and convincing messages to trick them into divulging sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security.
* Impersonation: The use of impersonation, in this case, a recruiter, is a common tactic in spear-phishing to gain the trust of the targeted individuals and increase the likelihood of a successful attack.
* Correlated Contacts: The fact that several employees were contacted by the same individual suggests a coordinated effort to breach the organization's security by targeting multiple points of entry through social engineering.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-61: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide
* OWASP Phishing Cheat Sheet
NEW QUESTION # 573
A security analyst needs to ensure email domains that send phishing attempts without previous communications are not delivered to mailboxes The following email headers are being reviewed
Which of thefollowing is the best action for the security analyst to take?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In reviewing email headers and determining actions to mitigate phishing attempts, the security analyst should focus on patterns of suspicious behavior and the reputation of the sending domains. Here's the analysis of the options provided:
A . Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain: Blocking a domain solely because it is not recognized can lead to legitimate emails being missed. Recognition alone should not be the criterion for blocking.
B . Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator: While rerouting suspicious messages can be a good practice, it is not specific to the domain sending repeated suspicious messages.
C . Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header: Quarantining messages based on the presence of a specific domain in the email header can be too broad and may capture legitimate emails.
D . Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages: This option is the most appropriate because it targets a domain that has shown a pattern of sending suspicious messages. Blocking a domain that repeatedly sends phishing attempts without previous communications helps in preventing future attempts from the same source and aligns with the goal of mitigating phishing risks.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Details best practices for handling phishing attempts, including blocking domains with repeated suspicious activity.
NIST Special Publication 800-45 Version 2, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security": Provides guidelines on email security, including the management of suspicious email domains.
"Phishing and Countermeasures: Understanding the Increasing Problem of Electronic Identity Theft" by Markus Jakobsson and Steven Myers: Discusses effective measures to counter phishing attempts, including blocking persistent offenders.
By blocking the domain that has consistently attempted to send suspicious messages, the security analyst can effectively reduce the risk of phishing attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 574
After an incident response exercise, a security administrator reviews the following table:
Which of the following should the administrator do to beat support rapid incident response in the future?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Enabling dashboards for service status monitoring is the best action to support rapid incident response. The table shows various services with different risk, criticality, and alert severity ratings. To ensure timely and effective incident response, real-time visibility into the status of these services is crucial.
Why Dashboards for Service Status Monitoring?
Real-time Visibility: Dashboards provide an at-a-glance view of the current status of all critical services, enabling rapid detection of issues.
Centralized Monitoring: A single platform to monitor the status of multiple services helps streamline incident response efforts.
Proactive Alerting: Dashboards can be configured to show alerts and anomalies immediately, ensuring that incidents are addressed as soon as they arise.
Improved Decision Making: Real-time data helps incident response teams make informed decisions quickly, reducing downtime and mitigating impact.
NEW QUESTION # 575
An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.
* ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.
* "Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 576
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released. A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:
Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first.
Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
NEW QUESTION # 577
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