Free PDF Quiz 2026 CompTIA High Pass-Rate CS0-004: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Exam Collection

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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Reporting and Communication16%- Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
  • 1. Incident Reporting Requirements and Compliance
  • 2. Security Reporting and Documentation
  • 3. Risk Communication to Technical and Business Audiences
Security Operations34%- Security Monitoring and Analysis
  • 1. System and Network Architecture Security
  • 2. SOAR, EDR, and XDR Concepts
  • 3. Endpoint, Network, and Cloud Monitoring
  • 4. SIEM Implementation and Analysis
  • 5. Threat Detection and Threat Hunting
Vulnerability Management26%- Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
  • 1. Cloud and Container Security Vulnerabilities
  • 2. Vulnerability Prioritization and Risk Assessment
  • 3. Vulnerability Scanning and Assessment
  • 4. Remediation Verification and Tracking
Incident Response and Management24%- Incident Handling and Investigation
  • 1. Evidence Collection and Forensic Fundamentals
  • 2. Incident Response Lifecycle and Frameworks
  • 3. Post-Incident Activities and Lessons Learned
  • 4. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q176-Q181):

NEW QUESTION # 176
Multiple users report unexpected mouse movements and terminal windows opening. An analyst reviewing the network traffic logs observes the following:

Which of the following is the most likely reason for the reported symptoms?

Answer: C

Explanation:
TCP port 5900 is the standard port for VNC, which provides interactive remote control of a system's desktop, including mouse movement and opening terminal windows.


NEW QUESTION # 177
A vulnerability scanner shows discrepancies between the number of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses across the sites being scanned and the number of systems reporting into the patching system.
Which of the following actions will resolve this issue?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A comprehensive asset inventory is required because the discrepancy demonstrates that the organization lacks a reliable common understanding of which systems actually exist and should be covered by vulnerability and patch-management processes. Effective vulnerability management begins with asset discovery and inventory. Without accurate asset records, teams cannot determine whether missing systems represent decommissioned devices, unmanaged assets, duplicate IP addresses, dynamic addressing, scanning gaps, or endpoints that are not enrolled in the patch platform.
Reconciliation with the infrastructure team allows the organization to establish authoritative records for hostnames, IP addresses, operating systems, ownership, business function, physical or cloud location, patching status, and vulnerability-scanner coverage. Once that inventory exists, each security tool can be compared against the same source of truth.
Verbose scanner logging might explain specific scanning failures but cannot resolve discrepancies caused by unknown or unmanaged assets. Rebuilding report filters risks masking the real coverage problem. Rerunning patch deployment does not help when the organization has not established which assets should be receiving patches.
The governing principle is simple: an organization cannot reliably assess or patch assets it has not accurately inventoried .
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Asset Discovery # Asset Inventory # Vulnerability Scanner Coverage # Patch Management # CMDB/Reconciliation # Shadow and Unmanaged Assets.


NEW QUESTION # 178
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to improve internal security measures by continuously validating and verifying access to the production environment.
Which of the following concepts best describes this practice?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Zero Trust is based on the principle that access should not be implicitly trusted merely because a user, workload, or device has already entered the enterprise environment. Access decisions are continuously evaluated using identity, authentication state, device posture, authorization, contextual information, and resource sensitivity. The scenario's emphasis on continuously validating and verifying access therefore directly describes Zero Trust.
Traditional perimeter-oriented models tend to treat internal network position as a degree of trust. Zero Trust removes that assumption and requires explicit verification before granting access to protected resources. It also supports least privilege, granular authorization, segmentation, and ongoing assessment of sessions or identities.
Secure access service edge combines networking and security capabilities delivered through a distributed service architecture and can support Zero Trust implementations, but SASE itself is not the fundamental principle described. A next-generation firewall provides application-aware traffic inspection and policy enforcement but does not by itself establish continuous identity-centric verification. Privileged access management specifically controls elevated or administrative accounts; it is an important component of access security but addresses a narrower scope than Zero Trust.
The CS0-004 objectives explicitly identify Zero Trust Network Architecture , SASE, hybrid cloud, IAM, PAM, authentication, and authorization as Security Operations architecture concepts.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # Network Architecture # Zero Trust Network Architecture # IAM # Authentication and Authorization # Least Privilege.


NEW QUESTION # 179
Law enforcement subpoenas a company in order to obtain all records related to the activities a threat actor performed using the IP address 154.21.154.21. Which of the following should an analyst perform first?

Answer: B

Explanation:
A legal hold should be established first to ensure that all relevant records, logs, and evidence related to the investigation are preserved and protected from deletion or modification. Once preservation requirements are in place, evidence can be collected and handled according to forensic and legal procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 180
As part of a quality assurance test, a developer wants to examine how the code behaves after an application has been fully compiled and is running. Which of the following best describes the type of testing that the developer should perform?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Dynamic testing evaluates the application during runtime after it has been compiled, allowing the developer to observe actual behavior, execution flow, and interactions while the application is running.


NEW QUESTION # 181
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