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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Physician Activities | 50% | - Management - Professional Behaviours - Communication - Psychosocial Aspects |
| Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention - Assessment and Diagnosis - Acute Care - Chronic Care |
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NEW QUESTION # 324
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision.
She reports severe right hip pain. On examination, the right hip is flexed and adducted. A radiograph shows a posterior dislocation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A posterior hip dislocation is an orthopedic emergency . The classic position is a shortened limb held in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation after high-energy trauma. MCCQE objectives emphasize immediate recognition and urgent management to prevent complications, especially avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head and sciatic nerve injury . The key treatment is prompt closed reduction (ideally within hours) under procedural sedation or anesthesia, after appropriate analgesia and neurovascular assessment. Post- reduction priorities include confirming concentric reduction with imaging, repeating a neurovascular exam (particularly sciatic nerve function), and evaluating for associated fractures (acetabular or femoral head/neck) that may require CT and possible operative management.
Open reduction is reserved for irreducible dislocations, incarcerated fragments, or associated fractures preventing stable closed reduction. Skeletal traction is not definitive acute management. Total hip arthroplasty is not indicated as first-line in an acute traumatic dislocation in this context. Urgent closed reduction best aligns with time-sensitive limb- and joint-preserving care.
NEW QUESTION # 325
A 31-year-old man presents to the office with concerns about his heart. Three months ago, his father died of a myocardial infarction at age 58 years. He states that since the death of his father, he has experienced episodes in which his heart will start racing, causing him to feel short of breath, dizzy, and nauseous. He is afraid that he will die during these episodes. Findings from a physical examination, electrocardiogram, Holter monitoring, echocardiogram, and complete blood count are normal. Serum electrolyte level, troponin level, and thyroid function studies are all within normal limits. Which one of the following options is the most appropriate?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient presents with panic-like somatic symptoms triggered by bereavement. Normal investigations rule out cardiac pathology. Grief therapy is appropriate as the underlying stressor is unresolved grief and anxiety.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Grief and Anxiety Disorders:
"Bereavement-related anxiety and somatization are common. Grief counseling can help reduce somatic and psychological symptoms when medical causes are ruled out." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Anxiety and Bereavement:
"Candidates should recognize psychological sequelae of grief, including panic and health anxiety, and provide appropriate psychological support." Metoprolol (C) is not indicated without confirmed cardiac cause. Lorazepam (B) may offer short-term relief but does not address the underlying grief. Stress testing (A) is unnecessary with repeated normal investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 326
A 35-year-old maintenance worker presents to your office because he thinks he has been exposed to asbestos and is afraid of developing asbestosis. He has no respiratory symptoms and is a non-smoker. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In any suspected occupational exposure, the first step is a detailed occupational history to assess the nature, intensity, and duration of the exposure. This determines whether surveillance or further testing is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Respiratory Medicine, "Occupational Lung Diseases" Section:
"When a patient presents with concerns about exposure to occupational hazards such as asbestos, detailed history is essential. Ask about job tasks, duration of exposure, use of personal protective equipment, and prior workplace assessments." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-2: Environmental and Occupational Health):
"Candidates must be able to obtain a detailed environmental and occupational history and determine the risk of exposure before ordering investigations." Ordering a chest radiograph (B) or PFTs (E) without confirming meaningful exposure is premature. Referral to a specialist (D) and reassurance (A) come only after the exposure risk is assessed.
NEW QUESTION # 327
You are asked to see a 34-year-old patient at his long-term care facility for a 2-day history of fever. You diagnose a urinary tract infection. He has multiple sclerosis diagnosed 5 years ago and has lived in this long- term care facility for the past 2 years. He is bedbound and has an indwelling urinary catheter. For the past 3 months, he has been non-communicative. Prior to this, he had made it clear that he did not want any life- prolonging measures. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient is currently non-communicative and therefore likely lacks decision-making capacity. MCCQE ethics objectives emphasize that when a patient's prior capable wishes are clearly known, clinicians must follow those expressed values and directives. He previously stated he did not want life-prolonging measures; escalation (hospital transfer) and potentially curative treatment aimed primarily at prolonging life would conflict with that directive. The immediate best step is to provide comfort-focused care, addressing symptoms such as fever and distress with antipyretics and other palliative measures.
Calling family to "consider antibiotics" risks substituting others' preferences for the patient's known wishes; substitute decision makers are meant to apply the patient's prior expressed wishes, not override them. Starting antibiotics while waiting to contact family similarly risks initiating life-prolonging therapy inconsistent with the directive. Catheter change may be clinically useful in catheter-associated infection, but the question frames a clear limit on life-prolonging interventions; symptom relief is the priority. Ongoing care should include reassessment of comfort, clear documentation of goals of care, and communication with family about the patient's previously stated wishes and the plan for palliative management.
NEW QUESTION # 328
A 51-year-old man comes to your clinic for follow-up regarding his type 1 diabetes. His hemoglobin A1c is
12.5% (normal 4-6%). He has never had such high blood sugar results. He drinks 2 beers per night to help with sleep. He is not well rested because he has been sleeping on a friend's couch since losing his job last year. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient is experiencing social instability (homelessness, job loss) likely contributing to poorly controlled diabetes. Before investigating or prescribing further, it is essential to address his ability to afford and manage self-monitoring and insulin.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes:
"Social determinants such as housing insecurity and financial barriers significantly affect diabetes self- management. Addressing access to glucose monitoring and insulin is critical." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Chronic Disease Management:
"Candidates must assess barriers to effective disease control, including financial and psychosocial limitations." Antidepressants (B) may be helpful later if depression is suspected. Thyroid testing (C) is not the priority. A dietitian (D) may help long-term, but immediate access and adherence are more urgent.
NEW QUESTION # 329
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