CompTIA CS0-004 Quiz, CS0-004 Reliable Exam Syllabus

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| Section | Objectives |
|---|
| Topic 1: Workflow and Rules Engine | - Workflow configuration
- 1. Process definitions and task management
- 2. Case lifecycle workflows
- Business rules
- 1. Decision automation logic
- 2. Eligibility and entitlement rules
|
| Topic 2: Integration and Deployment | - System integration
- 1. Web services and APIs
- 2. External system integration patterns
- Deployment and maintenance
- 1. Performance tuning and troubleshooting
- 2. Application build and deployment process
|
| Topic 3: Data and Evidence Management | - Evidence processing
- 1. Evidence lifecycle management
- 2. Validation and deduction rules
- Data model design
- 1. Database mapping concepts
- 2. Case and evidence structure
|
| Topic 4: Application Development | - User Interface (UIM) development
- 1. Pages, panels, and controls
- 2. Navigation and page flow design
- Business logic implementation
- 1. Entity and Evidence framework
- 2. Server interfaces and service layers
|
| Topic 5: Cúram Platform Fundamentals | - Development environment setup
- 1. Build tools and runtime configuration
- 2. Database and environment configuration
- Architecture and components overview
- 1. Server and client interaction model
- 2. Cúram application architecture layers
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q162-Q167):
NEW QUESTION # 162
A security analyst IS comparing the results of the past and current active credentialed vulnerability scans:
Past scan:

Current scan:

Which of the following should the analyst do next?
- A. Try to avoid a data leak by immediately creating a self-signed TLS certificate to patch the NTP system.
- B. Request an unauthenticated scan to confirm that vulnerabilities have been patched.
- C. Inform management about the risk that the company's assets will be used to perform attacks.
- D. Create a new entry on the risk register saying that all significant risks have been mitigated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The current scan shows that a previously low-severity SSL vulnerability has increased to a high- severity (9.1) issue with potential information disclosure. This means the organization now faces a significantly greater risk than before. Management must be informed because the company's assets could be leveraged in attacks or suffer data exposure, and leadership needs awareness to prioritize remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 163
Before merging with a software company, the acquiring company's legal team requires a detailed software scan to determine if all code base is using open-source or paid licensed libraries. The vulnerability management analyst needs to provide this report. Which of the following scan methods will best meet this requirement?
- A. Software composition analysis (SCA)
- B. Credentialed vulnerability scan
- C. Static application security testing (SAST)
- D. Runtime application self-protection (RASP)
- E. Dynamic application security testing (DAST)
Answer: A
Explanation:
SCA inventories third-party and open-source components, identifies their licenses, and detects associated vulnerabilities, making it the best method for software licensing due diligence.
NEW QUESTION # 164
Multiple users report unexpected mouse movements and terminal windows opening. An analyst reviewing the network traffic logs observes the following:

Which of the following is the most likely reason for the reported symptoms?
- A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is being used to remotely control the impacted computers.
- B. Virtual Network Computing is being used to connect to systems.
- C. Activity is on an internally addressable network.
- D. A reverse tunnel is being used to send commands.
Answer: B
Explanation:
TCP port 5900 is the standard port for VNC, which provides interactive remote control of a system's desktop, including mouse movement and opening terminal windows.
NEW QUESTION # 165
Which of the following phases of the incident response process will permanently remove an attacker's access to corporate resources?
- A. Detection
- B. Denial of service
- C. Containment
- D. Eradication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Eradication addresses the root causes and malicious mechanisms that allow an attacker to remain inside the environment. Typical eradication actions include deleting malware, removing persistence mechanisms, disabling unauthorized accounts, resetting compromised credentials, eliminating malicious scheduled tasks or services, correcting exploited vulnerabilities, and rebuilding systems when trust cannot be restored.
This differs fundamentally from containment. Containment is intended to limit immediate damage or prevent further spread , such as isolating an infected workstation, blocking an IP address, disabling a network segment, or temporarily suspending an account. These measures can interrupt attacker activity, but they do not necessarily remove the underlying foothold. Microsoft security architecture guidance similarly distinguishes containment from eradication and describes eradication procedures as completely removing the threat from the environment.
Detection identifies that suspicious or malicious activity exists; it does not remove access. Denial of service is an attack or availability condition rather than a recognized incident-response phase.
Therefore, if the examination asks which phase permanently removes the adversary's access , the correct answer is eradication because this is where attacker persistence and the enabling compromise are eliminated before normal operations are fully restored.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Containment # Eradication # Persistence Removal # Credential Reset # Malware Removal # Vulnerability Remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 166
Which of the following is best suited for determining the methods of an adversary?
- A. OWASP
- B. Penetration Test Framework
- C. OSSTMM
- D. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is specifically designed to analyze adversary activity by examining the relationships among the adversary, infrastructure, capabilities, and victims. It helps security analysts understand how attackers operate, identify their methods and behaviors, and develop intelligence about their tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs).
NEW QUESTION # 167
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