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Splunk SPLK-5003 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Advanced Threat Intelligence and Analysis5%- Threat intelligence architecture
  • 1. Threat-informed defense
  • 2. Threat intelligence integration
  • 3. Advanced threat analysis
Advanced Automation and Orchestration10%- SOAR architecture
  • 1. Playbook design
  • 2. Security orchestration
  • 3. Workflow automation
Scaling Cybersecurity Defenses and DevSecOps15%- Security architecture at scale
  • 1. Enterprise security operations design
  • 2. DevSecOps integration
  • 3. Scalable defense strategies
Security Capability Selection, Placement and Configuration15%- Security control architecture
  • 1. Capability integration
  • 2. Technology selection
  • 3. Control placement strategies
Security Data Management20%- Data architecture design
  • 1. Security data onboarding and normalization
  • 2. Data lifecycle management
  • 3. Data quality and governance
Governance, Risk and Compliance10%- Security governance
  • 1. Risk management frameworks
  • 2. Compliance requirements
  • 3. Policy alignment
Measuring and Improving Security Program Effectiveness15%- Security metrics and performance
  • 1. Continuous improvement processes
  • 2. Risk measurement
  • 3. Program maturity assessment
Advanced Incident Response and Management10%- Incident response architecture
  • 1. Response workflows
  • 2. Incident management optimization
  • 3. Investigation processes

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Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Architect Sample Questions (Q59-Q64):

NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the "Notable Event Suppression" feature in ES?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Notable event suppression temporarily prevents notable events matching specific criteria (often known false positives or expected/maintenance activity) from appearing, for a configured duration, without permanently altering the underlying detection logic.


NEW QUESTION # 60
Hannah is building a data lifecycle management strategy for her organization. She is evaluating data retention requirements such as how and when to delete or destroy data as part of that strategy. What factors must Hannah consider as part of defining data destruction requirements?
(Choose all that apply.)

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Data destruction requirements must account for both deletion obligations and retention obligations. Privacy and compliance rules may require data to be deleted when a valid customer request is received, while legal or regulatory requirements may require certain records to be retained for a defined minimum period before destruction is allowed.


NEW QUESTION # 61
Patrick manages a security operations team of six analysts who need to provide 24-hour per day coverage. The team is continuously overwhelmed with the amount of security events they each need to triage, analyze, and respond to every day. Patrick wants to enable his team to focus on the most critical incidents, and not get distracted by low priority events. Patrick's leadership team agrees to increase his budget to hire one more person. What is the best way for Patrick to allocate his budget?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Hiring a SOAR engineer is the best use of the budget because automation can reduce repetitive triage, enrichment, and response work across all shifts. Well-designed playbooks help filter, prioritize, and handle low-value events consistently, allowing analysts to focus on the most critical incidents.


NEW QUESTION # 62
During a security code review, one of the senior developers complains to the security architect that there have been unauthorized modifications to the code going into the nightly builds. Which of the following methods can ensure only authorized code modifications are part of the nightly builds?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Protecting the main branch helps ensure that only approved and authorized changes are included in nightly builds. Branch protection can enforce review requirements, restrict who can merge changes, require passing checks, and prevent direct unauthorized modifications to production build sources.


NEW QUESTION # 63
When acquiring forensic artifacts, what is a critical step to ensure admissibility in court?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Chain of custody documents who collected, handled, transferred, stored, and analyzed forensic evidence. Maintaining this record helps prove the evidence was preserved properly and not altered, supporting its admissibility in legal proceedings.


NEW QUESTION # 64
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