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CompTIA CySA+ certification exam focuses on the development of technical skills required to prevent, detect, and respond to cybersecurity threats. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, incident response, security operations and monitoring, and compliance and governance. CS0-003 Exam requires candidates to demonstrate their knowledge of these topics through multiple-choice questions and performance-based simulations.
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CompTIA CS0-003 Exam is designed for IT professionals who have at least three to four years of experience in the field of cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, network security, incident response, and compliance and governance. It is a performance-based exam that tests the candidate's ability to apply their knowledge and skills in real-world scenarios.
NEW QUESTION # 355
An analyst is responding to an incident involving an attack on a company-owned mobile device that was being used by an employee to collect data from clients in the field. Malware was loaded on the device via the installation of a third-party software package. The analyst has baselined the device. Which of the following should the analyst do to BEST mitigate future attacks?
Answer: D
Explanation:
MDM solution to manage the configuration of those devices, automatically installing patches, requiring the use of encryption, and providing remote wiping functionality. MDM solutions may also restrict the applications that can be run on a mobile device to those that appear on an approved list.
NEW QUESTION # 356
A SIEM alert is triggered based on execution of a suspicious one-liner on two workstations in the organization's environment. An analyst views the details of these events below:
Which of the following statements best describes the intent of the attacker, based on this one-liner?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The one-liner script is utilizing JavaScript to execute a PowerShell command that downloads and runs a script from an external source, indicating the use of custom malware to download an additional script. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156.
NEW QUESTION # 357
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. Reference: Server and Workstation Patch Management Policy, Section: Policy; Patch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024, Section: What is a patch management policy?
NEW QUESTION # 358
During a routine review of DNS logs, a security analyst observes that Host X has been making frequent DNS requests to domains with random alphanumeric strings (e.g.. atd8ekthj.xyz). IPS anomaly rules are blocking these domains. This behavior started shortly after a new software Installation on the host. Which of the following should the analyst do first to determine whether Host X has been compromised?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Random, algorithmically generated domain names are a common indicator of malware using domain generation algorithms (DGAs). Checking the queried domains against threat intelligence is the fastest way to confirm whether they are malicious and whether the host is likely compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 359
You are a cybersecurity analyst tasked with interpreting scan data from Company As servers You must verify the requirements are being met for all of the servers and recommend changes if you find they are not
The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following
* TLS 1 2 is the only version of TLS
running.
* Apache 2.4.18 or greater should be used.
* Only default ports should be used.
INSTRUCTIONS
using the supplied dat
a. record the status of compliance With the company's guidelines for each server.
The question contains two parts: make sure you complete Part 1 and Part 2. Make recommendations for Issues based ONLY on the hardening guidelines provided.
Part 1:
AppServ2:
AppServ3:
AppServ4:
Part 2:
Answer:
Explanation:
check the explanation part below for the solution
Explanation:
Part 1:
Part 2:
Based on the compliance report, I recommend the following changes for each server:
AppServ1: No changes are needed for this server.
AppServ2: Disable or upgrade TLS 1.0 and TLS 1.1 to TLS 1.2 on this server to ensure secure encryption and communication between clients and the server. Update Apache from version 2.4.17 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs.
AppServ3: Downgrade Apache from version 2.4.19 to version 2.4.18 or lower on this server to ensure compatibility and stability with the company's applications and policies. Change the port number from 8080 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.
AppServ4: Update Apache from version 2.4.16 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs. Change the port number from 8443 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.
NEW QUESTION # 360
......
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