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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Architecture & Design | 21% | - Explain the concept of the attack surface and network architecture
- 1. Zero Trust
- 2. Virtualization and cloud concepts
- 3. Network architecture
- 4. Physical security controls
- Given a scenario, implement secure application and protocol concepts
- 1. Application protocols
- 2. Hardening techniques
- 3. Secure application development
- Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security
- 1. Specialized systems
- 2. Embedded systems
- 3. Security constraints
- Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts
- 1. Network segmentation
- 2. Network monitoring
- 3. Network device placement
- 4. Secure network designs
- Explain the importance of cryptographic solutions
- 1. Public key infrastructure (PKI)
- 2. Hashing and digital signatures
- 3. Cryptographic standards and protocols
- 4. Symmetric and asymmetric cryptography
|
| Operations & Incident Response | 16% | - Given a scenario, apply incident response and recovery procedures
- 1. Incident investigation and digital forensics
- 2. Business continuity and disaster recovery
- 3. Incident response procedures
- Describe the collection and use of threat intelligence
- 1. Threat intelligence sources
- 2. Threat intelligence analysis
- Explain the use of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls
- 1. Security controls
- 2. Governance and compliance frameworks
- 3. Security policies and procedures
- Given a scenario, use the appropriate tool to assess organizational security
- 1. Vulnerability scanning and remediation
- 2. Log analysis and packet capture
- 3. Cybersecurity automation and orchestration
- 4. Network reconnaissance and discovery
|
| Implementation | 25% | - Given a scenario, implement appropriate controls for mobile and embedded devices
- 1. Mobile device management
- 2. Mobile device deployment
- 3. Mobile device enforcement and monitoring
- Given a scenario, implement cybersecurity resilience solutions
- 1. Backup and recovery strategies
- 2. Redundancy and fault tolerance
- 3. Resiliency and continuity measures
- Given a scenario, implement appropriate environmental and physical controls
- 1. Composite risks
- 2. Physical security controls
- 3. Environmental controls
- Given a scenario, implement identity and access management (IAM) solutions
- 1. Identity and access management concepts
- 2. Access control models
- 3. Directory services and federation
- 4. Authentication factors and methods
|
| Governance, Risk & Compliance | 14% | - Explain privacy and sensitive data concepts in relation to security
- 1. Data classification and handling
- 2. Privacy-enhancing technologies
- 3. Privacy and data protection regulations
- Explain regulations, standards, and frameworks that impact cybersecurity
- 1. Public and private sector compliance requirements
- 2. Regulations, standards, and frameworks
- Compare and contrast the various types of controls
- 1. Control categories
- 2. Control types
- Given a scenario, apply risk management strategies
- 1. Risk monitoring and reporting
- 2. Risk mitigation and treatment
- 3. Risk identification and assessment
|
| Threats, Attacks & Vulnerabilities | 24% | - Compare and contrast different types of security threats and attacks
- 1. Insider threats
- 2. Social engineering attacks
- 3. Supply chain attacks
- 4. Application/web-based attacks
- 5. Network attacks
- 6. Malware types
- Given a scenario, analyze indicators of malicious activity
- 1. Attack framework concepts
- 2. Indicators of compromise
- 3. Indicators of attack
- Explain penetration testing and vulnerability scanning concepts
- 1. Remediation and mitigation
- 2. Penetration testing methodologies
- 3. Vulnerability scanning
|
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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q363-Q368):
NEW QUESTION # 363
Which of the following best describes a common use of OSINT?
- A. Collecting information from public platforms to find possible security exposures
- B. Installing and configuring security patches to fix known vulnerabilities
- C. Encrypting sensitive company data and storing it securely in the cloud
- D. Monitoring internal systems and network traffic to detect abnormal behavior
Answer: A
Explanation:
OSINT stands for open source intelligence and is commonly used to gather information from publicly available sources to support security activities such as reconnaissance, threat intelligence, and identifying exposures (for example, leaked credentials, exposed infrastructure details, or public references to vulnerabilities). The Practice Tests book defines OSINT directly: "OSINT, or open source intelligence, is intelligence information obtained from public sources like search engines, websites, domain name registrars, and a host of other locations." That definition aligns precisely with option C's "collecting information from public platforms." The Study Guide similarly explains OSINT in the threat intelligence context: "Open source threat intelligence is threat intelligence that is acquired from publicly available sources." This supports the idea that OSINT is used to discover relevant information that may affect security posture-such as indicators, exposed assets, or details useful for defensive planning. The other options describe different operational activities: A is internal monitoring (SIEM/IDS/EDR style), B is patch management, and D is encryption/storage strategy-none are
"open source intelligence."
References: OSINT definition as intelligence obtained from public sources ; OSINT as threat intelligence acquired from publicly available sources .
NEW QUESTION # 364
An unexpected and out-of-character email message from a Chief Executive Officer's corporate account asked an employee to provide financial information and to change the recipient's contact number. Which of the following attack vectors is most likely being used?
- A. Brand impersonation
- B. Phishing
- C. Business email compromise
- D. Pretexting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Business email compromise (BEC) involves the use of a legitimate or spoofed business email account, often from executives, to trick employees into performing unauthorized actions like transferring funds or revealing sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION # 365
Alerts from email protection systems and MSSPs must be entered into an IT service management system and assigned to the security team. Which of the following should an organization implement to enable this functionality?
- A. Automated ticket creation
- B. Automated vulnerability scans
- C. Automated compliance monitoring
- D. Automated indicator sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Automated ticket creation.
The requirement is to take alerts from email protection systems and MSSPs and ensure they are entered into an IT service management system and assigned to the security team. That function is best achieved through automated ticket creation, which generates incidents or service tickets based on incoming alerts and routes them to the appropriate group.
This improves consistency, response time, and tracking of security events.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Automated compliance monitoringThis focuses on compliance status, not routing alerts into an ITSM workflow.
C). Automated vulnerability scansVulnerability scanning identifies weaknesses, but it does not create or assign incident tickets from security alerts.
D). Automated indicator sharingIndicator sharing helps distribute threat intelligence, but it does not directly create and assign IT service tickets.
From a Security+ viewpoint, integrating alert sources with response workflows commonly involves ticketing automation, so B is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 366
A company is changing its mobile device policy. The company has the following requirements:
Company-owned devices
Ability to harden the devices
Reduced security risk
Compatibility with company resources
Which of the following would best meet these requirements?
- A. COPE
- B. COBO
- C. CYOD
- D. BYOD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled) devices allow companies to manage and harden company-owned devices while still enabling limited personal use, reducing security risks while maintaining compatibility with corporate resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Mobile Device Deployment Models".
NEW QUESTION # 367
Which of the following should be deployed on an externally facing web server in order to establish an encrypted connection?
- A. Public key
- B. Private key
- C. Symmetric key
- D. Asymmetric key
Answer: A
Explanation:
A public key is deployed on the web server within its digital certificate, allowing clients to establish an encrypted session by securely exchanging a symmetric key through asymmetric encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 368
......
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