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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Security Operations | 22% | - Threat and vulnerability management
|
| Security Engineering | 31% | - Security testing and validation
|
| Governance, Risk, and Compliance | 20% | - Enterprise risk management
|
| Security Architecture | 27% | - Security for emerging technologies
|
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NEW QUESTION # 414
A company needs a highly secure method to transfer documents over an insecure network. The documents are highly sensitive, and the documents' encryption must be guaranteed even if the network traffic is intercepted. Which of the following encryption techniques is the best option?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 415
An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.
* ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.
* "Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 416
A security analyst is reviewing the following code in the public repository for potential risk concerns:
typescript
CopyEdit
include bouncycastle-1.4.jar;
include jquery-2.0.2.jar;
public static void main() {...}
public static void territory() { ... }
public static void state() { ... }
public static String code = "init";
public static String access_token = "spat-hfeiw-sogur-werdb-werib";
Which of the following should the security analyst recommend first to remediate the vulnerability?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The code snippet exposes a hardcoded access token in a public repository. According to SecurityX CAS-005 secure coding best practices, the immediate action must be to revoke the exposed secret to prevent unauthorized access.
* Removing the code from public view without revoking the token leaves the secret still usable by any attacker who has already seen or copied it.
* SAST scanning would detect the issue but not mitigate it immediately.
* Security awareness training is a long-term prevention measure but does not fix the immediate exposure.
Revoking the secret first stops ongoing exploitation, after which the code can be removed, and preventative measures can be implemented.
NEW QUESTION # 417
A security analyst is reviewingsuspicious log-in activity and sees the following data in the SICM:
Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the analyst to take?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The log-in activity indicates a security threat, particularly involving the ADMIN account with a high-risk failure status. This suggests that the account may be targeted by malicious activities such as credential stuffing or brute force attacks.
Updating log configuration settings (A) may help in better logging future activities but does not address the immediate threat.
Changing the admin account password (B) is a good practice but may not fully mitigate the ongoing threat if the account has already been compromised.
Blocking employees (C) from logging into non-business applications might help in reducing attack surfaces but doesn ' t directly address the compromised account issue.
Implementing automation to disable accounts associated with high-risk activities ensures an immediate response to the detected threat, preventing further unauthorized access and allowing time for thorough investigation and remediation.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX guide on incident response and account management.
Best practices for handling compromised accounts.
Automation tools and techniques for security operations centers (SOCs).
NEW QUESTION # 418
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here's a detailed Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.
Isolation fromProduction: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.
Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Study Guide by Quentin Docter, Jon Buhagiar NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
NEW QUESTION # 419
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