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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Risk Management, Reporting and Communication | - Lexicon - Internationally Recognised Standards and Frameworks - Articulating Risk - Engagement Risk Management |
| Threat Intelligence | - Benefits of Active vs Passive Methodologies - Considerations of Threat models (digital vs Physical) - Legalities / Ethics considerations of Threat Intelligence sources - Sources of Threat Intelligence |
| Planning & Scoping | - Stakeholders for engagements - Requirements Analysis (scoping) |
| Dropper/Implant Design, Safety and Secure Coding | - Implant Controls - Secure Data Handling - Infrastructure Controls - Implant Droppers capabilities and risks - Implant Core capabilities |
| Legal, Ethical and Moral Aspects of Attack Management | - Ethical testing considerations - Inadvertent and Collateral targeting - Computer crime/cyber abuse and misuse legislation - Data handling legislation - Additional relevant legislation or contractual information - Privacy legislation |
| Attack Methodology, Key Stages & Common Frameworks | - Physical access control bypasses and risks - Hybrid Environment Testing and Risks - Attack Methodology Frameworks - Cloud Environment Testing and Risks - Privilege Escalation Techniques and Risks - Lateral Movement Techniques and Risks - Initial Access Techniques and Risks - Persistence Techniques and Risks |
| Rules of Engagement, Contingencies and Scenario Simulation | - Contingencies / Client Facilitation - Types of scenarios - Test plans - Rules of Engagements |
| Project Management, Governance & Oversight | - Communications plans - Incident Management Response - Roles & responsibilities of the control group - Stages of a red team engagement - Stakeholder Management & Engagement Integrity |
| Key Concepts | - Terminology - Red team, Purple team testing, penetration testing - Red Team Frameworks - Detection and Response Assessment - Attack Path Mapping & Attack Path Simulation |
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NEW QUESTION # 222
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the threat intelligence findings (in a framework like CBEST or TIBER-EU) and the final agreed technical scope?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In intelligence-led frameworks, an initial high-level scope (covering which Important/Critical Functions and systems may be involved) is agreed during Preparation/Scoping, and the subsequent threat intelligence work then sharpens and informs the specific scenario and technical approach used within that already-agreed boundary - it does not operate entirely independently of scope (contradicting D), nor does it unilaterally expand what has been legally authorised (contradicting C); any genuine need to extend scope based on intelligence findings must go through proper governance and reauthorisation, not happen automatically. Scope must be substantially agreed before testing begins, not finalised only after testing has already concluded (B), which would remove the governance foundation the whole exercise depends on.
NEW QUESTION # 223
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a clearly defined "residual risk" statement within a closure report, where relevant?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A clearly defined residual risk statement communicates, honestly and specifically, the risk that genuinely remains even after accounting for existing controls and any remediation that has been planned or already completed - supporting the client's own informed decision-making about whether that remaining risk is acceptable or requires further mitigation, which is a core purpose of risk-based reporting generally. This has clear, genuine value and is a recognised element of good risk reporting practice, not something rarely used (A); reporting residual risk as automatically zero simply because remediation has been proposed, regardless of whether it has genuinely been verified as effective (B), would be professionally dishonest and directly contrary to the objectivity principles established earlier in this domain; and the concept of residual risk applies equally to technical, physical, and process-related findings, not solely physical security ones (C).
NEW QUESTION # 224
A Red Team Manager is finalising legal documentation for a first-of-its-kind engagement in a jurisdiction the firm has never operated in before. Which combination of actions best reflects sound legal risk management?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Sound legal risk management for operating in an unfamiliar jurisdiction requires proactively commissioning local legal advice on the areas most likely to differ materially (cybercrime/computer misuse law, data protection law, and contract law), adapting authorisation and Rules of Engagement documentation accordingly, and explicitly confirming that the firm's insurance coverage actually extends to cover activity in that jurisdiction. Simply reusing UK-templated documents unchanged (A) ignores real, material legal differences between jurisdictions; relying solely on the client's own legal assurance without independent verification (B) leaves the provider without its own independent risk assessment, which is professionally imprudent given the provider's own legal exposure; and there is no need to wait indefinitely for a formally named local scheme to exist before responsibly delivering intelligence-led testing on a proportionate, well- governed basis, as established earlier in this domain (D).
NEW QUESTION # 225
A firm considering whether to pursue STAR/STAR-FS testing asks whether the results carry any formal regulatory recognition comparable to CBEST attestation. What is the most accurate response?
Answer: B
Explanation:
STAR/STAR-FS provides genuinely rigorous, CREST-governed assurance and is a credible, valuable input to a firm's own governance and risk management, but because it is a voluntary scheme rather than a formal regulator-mandated designation (unlike CBEST or DORA TLPT), firms should not assume automatic formal regulatory equivalence and should clarify directly with their supervisor how such testing is regarded in their specific supervisory relationship. Assuming automatic full equivalence in every respect (C) overstates the position, dismissing the results as having no value (D) understates their genuine assurance benefit, and supervisors can, in practice, take a genuine interest in a firm's voluntary resilience testing activity as part of broader supervisory engagement, contrary to B.
NEW QUESTION # 226
CBEST was originally developed and launched by which organisation, in partnership with UK government bodies and CREST?
Answer: C
Explanation:
CBEST was developed and launched by the Bank of England in 2014, working alongside HM Treasury, the (then) Financial Conduct Authority, CREST, the CPNI (Centre for the Protection of National Infrastructure) and industry participants, as a direct response to the financial sector's need for realistic, intelligence-led resilience testing following high-profile sector incidents and the 2013 "Waking Shark II" desktop exercise.
While the FCA and PRA share ongoing supervisory interest in firms' outcomes, the Bank of England is the scheme owner and custodian of the CBEST Implementation Guide. Option D is incorrect because the FCA is a joint supervisory stakeholder, not the originating owner. Option A is incorrect as the NCSC did not exist in its current form in 2014 and plays an advisory/threat-intelligence support role rather than scheme ownership.
Option C is incorrect because HM Treasury supported the initiative but did not launch or own it alone.
NEW QUESTION # 227
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