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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | - Acute Care
|
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NEW QUESTION # 89
A 38-year-old man is brought by his wife to the Emergency Department with fatigue, dizziness, and nausea after completing a hiking tour on a hot, humid day. His wife became worried after he had collapsed. He has been sweating heavily and vomited twice on the drive in. His medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications. His vital signs on arrival are as follows:
Blood pressure
85/57 mm Hg
Heart rate
120/min
Respiratory rate
18/min
Temperature
40.1 °C
Oxygen saturation
95%, room air
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On physical examination, the patient's skin is dry, flushed, and warm to the touch. He has a diffuse erythematous papular rash. Findings of a thorough physical examination are otherwise unremarkable. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient has classic features of exertional heat stroke-hyperthermia, hypotension, CNS symptoms (collapse), and hot, dry skin. A key complication of heat stroke is rhabdomyolysis, which can cause renal failure. Serum creatine kinase (CK) is the best next diagnostic step to confirm muscle breakdown.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Emergency Medicine, "Environmental Exposures":
"In heat stroke, check for rhabdomyolysis (#CK), renal impairment, and coagulopathy. Prompt cooling and hydration are critical." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 59-3: Environmental and Toxic Exposures):
"Candidates must recognize heat-related illnesses and investigate for complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute kidney injury." CT head (C) is not indicated unless persistent neurological symptoms. TSH (B), CRP (D), and blood cultures (E) are irrelevant to acute exertional hyperthermia.
NEW QUESTION # 90
A 61-year-old man presents to the office for follow-up of recent laboratory test results. He has hypertension for which he takes amlodipine daily. His blood pressure is 148/94 mm Hg. His creatinine level is 140 µmol/L (normal 70-120), and his urine protein-to-creatinine ratio is persistently elevated. You would like to prescribe ramipril, but he refuses to take any additional medication. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Respecting patient autonomy requires understanding their perspective before offering persuasion or incentives. The best next step is to explore the reason for non-compliance. This builds rapport and informs a shared decision-making process.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Patient-Centered Communication:
"When a patient refuses recommended treatment, explore the reason behind the refusal before proceeding.
Shared decision-making is crucial."
MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Communication and Consent:
"Candidates must demonstrate an ability to explore reasons for treatment refusal before counseling or modifying management." Options B and C may follow later. Options D and E can undermine appropriate pharmacologic care or violate ethics if not consented.
NEW QUESTION # 91
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the office because he has progressive weight gain and short stature. He has marked truncal obesity, hypertrichosis of the upper lip, and facial swelling. Which one of the following is a physical examination most likely to reveal?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The child's presentation (weight gain, short stature, truncal obesity, facial swelling, hypertrichosis) is classic for Cushing syndrome. One of the hallmark findings on physical examination in pediatric Cushing syndrome is hypertension, due to increased cortisol-mediated mineralocorticoid receptor activation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics / Endocrinology:
"Cushing syndrome in children presents with growth failure, weight gain, moon facies, truncal obesity, and hypertension." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-2: Endocrine Disorders in Children):
"Candidates must identify clinical signs of hypercortisolism and evaluate for associated findings such as elevated blood pressure." Cafe-au-lait spots (A) suggest neurofibromatosis. Goiter (C) is more related to thyroid dysfunction.
Hepatomegaly (D) and acanthosis (E) are more commonly seen in metabolic syndrome or insulin resistance.
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NEW QUESTION # 92
You are asked to assess an 85-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital for management of a bowel obstruction. The patient is in bed and has a faint pulse with no detectable blood pressure. There is vomitus on his bed and clothing. He has central cyanosis, and oxygen saturation is 75% on supplemental oxygen. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient is critically unstable with severe hypoxia (SpO# 75% despite oxygen), central cyanosis, hypotension (no detectable blood pressure), and evidence of active vomiting-placing him at extremely high risk of airway compromise and aspiration . According to MCCQE resuscitation objectives and ABC principles, airway management is the immediate priority in a patient with respiratory failure and compromised airway protection.
Endotracheal intubation provides definitive airway control, allows suctioning of vomitus, prevents further aspiration, and enables mechanical ventilation with high-concentration oxygen. Noninvasive ventilation is contraindicated in patients with vomiting and impaired airway protection due to high aspiration risk. Chest compressions are indicated only if there is no pulse; this patient has a faint pulse. Intravenous fluids are important for hypotension but must follow airway stabilization. Nasogastric tube insertion does not address the immediate life-threatening hypoxia.
Early definitive airway control in unstable patients with hypoxemia and aspiration risk is essential to prevent cardiac arrest and improve survival outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 93
An otherwise healthy 57-year-old man with a 20 pack-year history of smoking presents with a 2-day history of reddish-brown urine that has not cleared. There is no history of abdominal or flank pain. Urinalysis reveals
5 red blood cells per high power field. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This patient has gross painless hematuria (reddish-brown urine) and is over age 50 with a smoking history- major risk factors for urothelial carcinoma (bladder cancer) . MCCQE objectives emphasize that any episode of gross painless hematuria in adults warrants urgent evaluation for malignancy , regardless of the number of red blood cells seen on urinalysis. Even microscopic hematuria in higher-risk individuals requires thorough workup.
The most important next step is cystoscopy , which directly visualizes the bladder and lower urinary tract to identify tumors, the most common cause of painless hematuria in this demographic. Imaging (e.g., CT urography) is also part of a complete evaluation, but cystoscopy is essential for diagnosing bladder lesions.
Intravenous pyelography is outdated and less sensitive. Ultrasonography may detect masses but does not replace cystoscopy. Reassurance or delayed repeat urinalysis would risk missing a malignancy.
Therefore, immediate urologic referral for cystoscopic evaluation is the appropriate next step.
NEW QUESTION # 94
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