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NEW QUESTION # 10
Which of the following should prompt a risk manager to give notice to a malpractice carrier?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles established by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, timely notice to a malpractice carrier is a critical obligation, particularly under claims-made policies. A demand letter from a patient constitutes a clear assertion of liability and a request for compensation, which typically meets the definition of a claim under most malpractice insurance policies. Failure to notify the carrier promptly may jeopardize coverage.
A written medical record request from an attorney may signal potential litigation, but it does not necessarily constitute a claim unless accompanied by an allegation of wrongdoing or a demand for damages. An internal incident report is a risk management tool used for quality and safety improvement and does not itself trigger insurance notification requirements. Similarly, disclosure to a patient regarding an adverse event aligns with transparency practices but does not automatically represent a formal claim.
Risk management objectives emphasize understanding policy language, particularly definitions of claim and reporting requirements. Because a demand letter explicitly alleges harm and seeks compensation, it most clearly triggers the duty to notify the malpractice carrier to preserve coverage and initiate appropriate claims handling procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 11
Protecting outdoor air intakes can mitigate the risk of terrorists introducing airborne agents. Steps include:
Answer: D
Explanation:
Air intake protection is a facility security and safety engineering control to reduce vulnerability to intentional contamination. Elevating intakes reduces easy access; security zones create stand-off distance; lighting and surveillance deter and improve detection. Risk management objectives emphasize layered physical security:
access control, environmental design, monitoring, and emergency response planning. In healthcare operations, these measures support resilience and continuity of care, reducing risk of mass exposure events that can overwhelm clinical capacity and cause severe harm.
NEW QUESTION # 12
What factors are included in a calculation of Risk Priority Number (RPN) in FMEA?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA), the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is commonly calculated as the product of three ratings:Severity (S)of impact,Occurrence (O)likelihood/probability, andDetection (D) ability to detect the failure before it causes harm (lower detectability increases risk). This structured scoring helps teams prioritize which failure modes deserve immediate mitigation. Risk management objectives include proactively identifying high-risk process steps (medication administration, specimen labeling, surgery scheduling), designing controls (standard work, forcing functions, redundancy), and tracking residual risk after changes. While cost and feasibility may influence selection of mitigations, they are not the core RPN elements. Using S-O-D improves transparency in prioritization, supports interdisciplinary alignment, and provides a defensible rationale for resource allocation toward patient safety improvements.
NEW QUESTION # 13
What significantly impacts whether incident reports are discoverable?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Discoverability of incident reports varies substantially by jurisdiction and depends on how state and federal laws define peer review privilege, quality improvement protections, and confidentiality-plus how courts interpret those protections. Risk management objectives include structuring reporting and investigation workflows to maximize protected quality review where legally available: routing analyses through designated committees, labeling and handling documents per policy, limiting distribution, and avoiding mixing risk/peer review materials with ordinary business records. However, privilege is not automatic; mishandling (broad email distribution, using reports for disciplinary actions outside protected structures, inconsistent committee practices) can weaken protections. A defensible program uses legal counsel guidance, staff training, and clear documentation rules so the organization learns from events while reducing unnecessary legal exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 14
An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the implantation of a medical device that lacks FDA approval and Institutional Review Board oversight presents significant legal and regulatory violations. Use of an unapproved device outside of an approved investigational protocol may violate federal regulations governing human subject research and medical device approval processes.
The risk manager's primary responsibility is to immediately mitigate regulatory and liability exposure.
Because the procedure is scheduled for the next day, urgent intervention is required. Contacting the FDA would not resolve the immediate risk. Verifying informed consent is insufficient, as patient consent cannot legitimize use of an unapproved device outside regulatory pathways. Calling a special IRB meeting would not retroactively authorize an unapproved device without appropriate investigational device exemption processes.
Escalating the issue to the chief of surgery to halt or cancel the procedure is the most appropriate immediate step. This ensures that organizational leadership addresses the compliance violation before patient harm occurs. Risk management objectives emphasize proactive prevention of regulatory breaches, protection of patient safety, and preservation of institutional integrity. Therefore, stopping the procedure is the correct and immediate action.
NEW QUESTION # 15
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