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| Section | Objectives |
|---|
| Topic 1: Workflow and Rules Engine | - Business rules
- 1. Eligibility and entitlement rules
- 2. Decision automation logic
- Workflow configuration
- 1. Case lifecycle workflows
- 2. Process definitions and task management
|
| Topic 2: Data and Evidence Management | - Data model design
- 1. Case and evidence structure
- 2. Database mapping concepts
- Evidence processing
- 1. Evidence lifecycle management
- 2. Validation and deduction rules
|
| Topic 3: Integration and Deployment | - Deployment and maintenance
- 1. Performance tuning and troubleshooting
- 2. Application build and deployment process
- System integration
- 1. External system integration patterns
- 2. Web services and APIs
|
| Topic 4: CΓΊram Platform Fundamentals | - Development environment setup
- 1. Database and environment configuration
- 2. Build tools and runtime configuration
- Architecture and components overview
- 1. Server and client interaction model
- 2. CΓΊram application architecture layers
|
| Topic 5: Application Development | - User Interface (UIM) development
- 1. Navigation and page flow design
- 2. Pages, panels, and controls
- Business logic implementation
- 1. Server interfaces and service layers
- 2. Entity and Evidence framework
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q131-Q136):
NEW QUESTION # 131
Before merging with a software company, the acquiring company's legal team requires a detailed software scan to determine if all code base is using open-source or paid licensed libraries. The vulnerability management analyst needs to provide this report. Which of the following scan methods will best meet this requirement?
- A. Runtime application self-protection (RASP)
- B. Static application security testing (SAST)
- C. Credentialed vulnerability scan
- D. Dynamic application security testing (DAST)
- E. Software composition analysis (SCA)
Answer: E
Explanation:
SCA inventories third-party and open-source components, identifies their licenses, and detects associated vulnerabilities, making it the best method for software licensing due diligence.
NEW QUESTION # 132
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is requiring users to phase out a legacy system that no longer receives security updates because the system will be decommissioned soon.
Which of the following risk management strategies is the CIO using?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Avoidance
- C. Mitigation
- D. Transference
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CIO is implementing risk avoidance because the organization is eliminating the activity or technology that creates the risk. The legacy system no longer receives security updates, so continued operation would maintain exposure to vulnerabilities that may eventually become impossible to remediate. By phasing out and ultimately decommissioning the system, the organization removes that source of risk instead of continuing to operate it under additional controls.
NIST recognizes acceptance, avoidance, mitigation, sharing, and transfer as established risk-response approaches. Avoidance differs from mitigation because mitigation would retain the legacy system while implementing controls that reduce its likelihood or impact-for example, segmentation, strict access controls, application allowlisting, or enhanced monitoring.
Risk acceptance would involve deliberately continuing to operate the system after management acknowledges and approves the remaining exposure. Risk transference would shift some financial or operational consequences to another party, such as through insurance or contractual arrangements.
The phrase "phase out" is the decisive indicator. The organization intends to stop using the risk-producing technology entirely, making avoidance the most precise classification.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Risk Management # Risk Responses # Avoidance # Mitigation # Acceptance # Transference # Legacy and End-of-Life Systems.
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following phases of the incident response process will permanently remove an attacker's access to corporate resources?
- A. Containment
- B. Denial of service
- C. Detection
- D. Eradication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Eradication removes the attacker's foothold, malware, compromised accounts, and persistence mechanisms. Containment only limits or temporarily blocks the attacker's activity.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A security analyst is investigating an unusually high volume of requests received on a web server.
Based on the following command and output:

Which of the following best describes the activity that the analyst will confirm?
- A. Cross-site scripting
- B. Directory brute force
- C. Remote command execution
- D. SQL injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The log shows a rapid sequence of GET requests for many different paths that do not exist, all returning 404 errors. This pattern is characteristic of directory or resource brute forcing, where an attacker scans for valid files or directories by requesting numerous possibilities.
NEW QUESTION # 135
A new security operations center (SOC) manager joins a team that struggles to meet service- level agreements (SLAs). The alert backlog continues to increase daily. Which of the following will the manager most likely need to do?
- A. Upgrade threat intelligence.
- B. Enhance the customer service response.
- C. Improve the triage processes.
- D. Automate escalation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Efficient triage prioritizes alerts by severity and risk, reduces time spent on low-value alerts, and helps the SOC process its backlog within SLA requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 136
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