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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Rules of Engagement, Contingencies and Scenario Simulation | - Types of scenarios - Contingencies / Client Facilitation - Test plans - Rules of Engagements |
| Topic 2: Legal, Ethical and Moral Aspects of Attack Management | - Additional relevant legislation or contractual information - Computer crime/cyber abuse and misuse legislation - Inadvertent and Collateral targeting - Ethical testing considerations - Privacy legislation - Data handling legislation |
| Topic 3: Planning & Scoping | - Requirements Analysis (scoping) - Stakeholders for engagements |
| Topic 4: Key Concepts | - Detection and Response Assessment - Terminology - Red Team Frameworks - Red team, Purple team testing, penetration testing - Attack Path Mapping & Attack Path Simulation |
| Topic 5: Dropper/Implant Design, Safety and Secure Coding | - Implant Core capabilities - Secure Data Handling - Implant Droppers capabilities and risks - Infrastructure Controls - Implant Controls |
| Topic 6: Threat Intelligence | - Sources of Threat Intelligence - Legalities / Ethics considerations of Threat Intelligence sources - Benefits of Active vs Passive Methodologies - Considerations of Threat models (digital vs Physical) |
| Topic 7: Attack Methodology, Key Stages & Common Frameworks | - Privilege Escalation Techniques and Risks - Physical access control bypasses and risks - Initial Access Techniques and Risks - Lateral Movement Techniques and Risks - Persistence Techniques and Risks - Hybrid Environment Testing and Risks - Attack Methodology Frameworks - Cloud Environment Testing and Risks |
| Topic 8: Risk Management, Reporting and Communication | - Internationally Recognised Standards and Frameworks - Lexicon - Articulating Risk - Engagement Risk Management |
| Topic 9: Project Management, Governance & Oversight | - Roles & responsibilities of the control group - Communications plans - Stakeholder Management & Engagement Integrity - Stages of a red team engagement - Incident Management Response |
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NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a clearly defined "residual risk" statement within a closure report, where relevant?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A clearly defined residual risk statement communicates, honestly and specifically, the risk that genuinely remains even after accounting for existing controls and any remediation that has been planned or already completed - supporting the client's own informed decision-making about whether that remaining risk is acceptable or requires further mitigation, which is a core purpose of risk-based reporting generally. This has clear, genuine value and is a recognised element of good risk reporting practice, not something rarely used (A); reporting residual risk as automatically zero simply because remediation has been proposed, regardless of whether it has genuinely been verified as effective (B), would be professionally dishonest and directly contrary to the objectivity principles established earlier in this domain; and the concept of residual risk applies equally to technical, physical, and process-related findings, not solely physical security ones (C).
NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following best describes the appropriate treatment of legacy or end-of-life systems discovered to be in scope, where compromise could cause disproportionate, hard-to-remediate disruption?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Legacy or end-of-life systems can carry disproportionate risk if disrupted (for example, due to a lack of vendor support, fragile configurations, or difficulty restoring service), so the specific risk they present should be discussed with relevant stakeholders during scoping, arriving at a proportionate approach that might range from careful, closely supervised limited testing to full exclusion, depending on the actual risk-benefit balance.
An automatic, undiscussed exclusion (C) forecloses potentially valuable, safely achievable insight without proper consideration, including such systems with no additional precaution given their known fragility (A) is an unacceptable risk management approach, and legacy systems' internet-facing status is not the only relevant factor - internal legacy systems are frequently realistic and relevant targets too, making them a legitimate scoping topic regardless (B).
NEW QUESTION # 190
Which of these is the LEAST appropriate way for a firm to use CBEST findings?
Answer: A
Explanation:
CBEST findings are highly sensitive and must remain tightly controlled; using them for competitive marketing purposes would breach confidentiality expectations, could expose the firm (and the wider sector, given shared infrastructure and threat actors) to real risk, and is explicitly contrary to how the scheme is intended to be used. Appropriate uses include prioritising remediation (C), improving training and response capability (A), and informing board-level risk decisions (B) - all internally focused, risk-reducing applications of the findings.
NEW QUESTION # 191
Which best describes "Critical or Important Functions" (CIFs) in the TIBER-EU/DORA context?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Critical or Important Functions (CIFs) are those functions whose interruption would have a material adverse effect on the entity's soundness or continuity, or on its compliance with applicable regulatory obligations - directly analogous to the "Important Business Services" concept used in CBEST and the UK operational resilience regime. This is a materiality-based, risk-focused concept, not a blanket description of every employee's activity (C), it is not limited to marketing/PR functions (D), which are rarely critical in this sense, and it extends well beyond physical building security alone (B) to cover the technology, people and processes underpinning genuinely critical services.
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following best reflects how the RoE should treat the use of testers' personal (non-client-issued, non-provider-issued) devices or accounts during an engagement?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Good practice, reflected in a well-constructed RoE, is to require testers to use approved, provider-managed, appropriately secured infrastructure and accounts rather than personal devices or accounts, maintaining clear security boundaries, accountability, and a clean audit/evidential trail for all engagement-related activity.
Using personal devices "to simulate real attacker behaviour" (D) confuses realism of technique with the entirely separate question of operational and evidential control over the testers' own infrastructure, and materially increases risk without meaningful benefit; this is an important matter the RoE should explicitly address, not something to leave unaddressed (C); and while the RoE is the primary governing document for the engagement, the client's own relevant IT and security policies can still be a relevant input where directly applicable to how the engagement is conducted (A).
NEW QUESTION # 193
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