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CISI ICWIM Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Risk and Return	20%	- Portfolio theory 1. Risk-return profiling 2. Modern portfolio theory 3. Asset allocation principles - Risk concepts 1. Risk diversification 2. Types of investment risk 3. Risk measurement
Client Advisory	25%	- Portfolio construction 1. Performance measurement 2. Portfolio review and rebalancing 3. Asset allocation strategies - Client needs analysis 1. Investment objectives 2. Time horizons 3. Risk profiling and suitability
Financial Products	20%	- Equities and shares 1. Types of equity 2. Valuation methods 3. Dividends and total return - Bonds and fixed income 1. Yield and price relationships 2. Credit risk 3. Bond types and characteristics - Collective investments 1. ETFs and index trackers 2. Fund selection criteria 3. Funds and structured products
Market Environment	20%	- Role and function of financial markets 1. Market indices and benchmarks 2. Types of financial markets and their roles 3. Market participants and intermediaries - Economic environment 1. Macroeconomic factors affecting investments 2. Business cycles 3. Interest rates and inflation
Regulation and Ethics	15%	- Ethical conduct 1. Professional responsibilities 2. Conflict of interest 3. CISI Code of Ethics - Regulatory framework 1. Investor protection 2. Financial regulation principles 3. Compliance requirements

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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q119-Q124):

NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following investments is most suitable for a customer who desires income rather than capital gain and who is risk-averse?

A. Deferred shares
B. Convertible preference shares
C. High coupon short-dated gilts
D. Low coupon long-dated gilts

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Why High Coupon Short-Dated Gilts?
* Gilts are UK government bonds and are considered low-risk investments.
* High couponprovides a steady income stream, ideal for income-seeking investors.
* Short-datedgilts reduce interest rate risk, suitable for risk-averse clients.
* Why the Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Low coupon long-dated gilts: Offer lower income and are more sensitive to interest rate changes, increasing risk.
* C. Deferred shares: Generally high-risk and designed for capital growth, not immediate income.
* D. Convertible preference shares: More volatile and often tied to company performance, unsuitable for risk-averse clients.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Fixed-Income Securities: Highlights the suitability of gilts for income-seeking, risk-averse investors.
* UK Bond Market Analysis: Confirms the low-risk nature of short-dated gilts.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isB. High coupon short-dated gilts.

NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following forms part of the Financial Planning Standards Board's six-step process for financial planning?

A. Challenge client's risk appetite
B. Analyse client's financial status
C. Minimise client's tax burden
D. Organise client's financial affairs

Answer: B

Explanation:
# Reference: FPSB Global Financial Planning Standards.

NEW QUESTION # 121
A firm acting as an agent makes money by:

A. Profiting from the spread
B. Providing advice
C. Trading against its own order book
D. Charging their client a commission

Answer: D

Explanation:
When a firm acts as an agent, it executes trades on behalf of clients and earns a commission for each transaction.
* Why is Option C Correct?
* Agents do not take ownership of securities but facilitate transactions.
* They charge a fixed fee or percentage-based commission for each trade executed.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Profiting from the spread) # Market makers profit from bid-ask spreads, not agents.
* B (Providing advice) # Advice is provided by investment advisers, not agents.
* D (Trading against its own order book) # Agents do not take opposing positions; this applies to principal trading.
# Reference: FCA Handbook (Market Conduct Rules), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 122
An investor would regard a company's interest cover ratio as significant as it provides:

A. A breakdown of how much debt a company has in relation to equity
B. A summary of how much liquid cash an organisation has for funding dividend payments
C. An indication of the extent to which the company can service its debts
D. An indication of what interest rate the company is paying

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Interest Cover Ratio Defined
* This ratio measures a company's ability to meet its interest obligations with its operating earnings.
* Formula: Interest Cover Ratio=Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT)Interest Expense\text
{Interest Cover Ratio} = \frac{\text{Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT)}}{\text{Interest Expense}}Interest Cover Ratio=Interest ExpenseEarnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT)
* Why the Answer is A
* A high interest cover ratio indicates strong debt-servicing capacity, which is crucial for investors assessing financial stability.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* B. Interest rate: The ratio does not indicate the interest rate being paid.
* C. Debt-to-equity: Refers to leverage, not interest coverage.
* D. Liquid cash for dividends: Unrelated to interest coverage.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Financial Ratios: Covers interest cover as a debt-servicing measure.
* Corporate Finance Principles: Discusses its importance for creditworthiness.
References

NEW QUESTION # 123
What is the role of a central counterparty (CCP)?

A. To act as a market maker between counterparties
B. The CCP guarantees that the counterparties will not default
C. To provide funding to counterparties as and when required
D. It interposes itself between the counterparties to a trade, becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Role of a Central Counterparty (CCP):
* A CCP acts as a mediator in financial transactions, ensuring stability and reducing counterparty risk.
* By becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer, the CCP ensures that trades are completed even if one party defaults.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: CCP does not guarantee no default but mitigates its impact.
* C: Market making involves liquidity provision, not CCP's role.
* D: CCP does not provide funding but manages trade clearing.
References:
* ICWIM Module 5: Explanation of trade clearing mechanisms and the CCP's role.

NEW QUESTION # 124
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