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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Patient Treatment and Transport | 20–24% | - Communication with receiving facilities - Patient packaging and transport procedures - Medication administration and protocols - Medical and trauma care interventions |
| Topic 2: Primary Assessment | 39–43% | - Airway, breathing, and circulation management - General patient impression and priority determination - Identification and management of life-threatening conditions - Initial patient assessment |
| Topic 3: EMS Operations | 10–14% | - EMS system roles and responsibilities - Incident command and multiple-casualty situations - Documentation and legal aspects - Emergency vehicle operations and safety |
| Topic 4: Secondary Assessment | 5–9% | - Symptom assessment and history taking - Vital signs and monitoring - Focused history and physical exam |
| Topic 5: Scene Size-Up and Safety | 15–19% | - Mechanism of injury / nature of illness - Hazard recognition and management - Scene assessment and safety protocols |
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NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following findings are indicative of increasing intracranial pressure? Select the two answer options that are correct.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C. Bradycardia and E. Widening pulse pressure.
This question is based on recognizing increased intracranial pressure (ICP), specifically components of Cushing's reflex (Cushing's triad).
Cushing's triad includes:
* Bradycardia
* Hypertension with widening pulse pressure
* Irregular respirations
Why C is correct (Bradycardia):
As ICP increases, pressure on the brainstem leads to:
* Vagal stimulation
* Slowing of the heart rate
NREMT-aligned guidance:
* "Bradycardia is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure."
Why E is correct (Widening pulse pressure):
ICP causes:
* Increased systolic pressure
* Decreased diastolic pressure
This results in a widening pulse pressure, a hallmark of worsening ICP.
Guidelines state:
* "Hypertension with widening pulse pressure is associated with increased intracranial pressure." Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Tachypnea: Early stress response; ICP causes irregular, not simply rapid breathing.
* B. Hypotension: Opposite of ICP findings; suggests shock.
* D. Muffled heart sounds: Associated with cardiac tamponade, not ICP.
Exact Extracts:
* "Cushing's triad includes bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations."
* "Widening pulse pressure is a sign of increased intracranial pressure."
* "These are late signs indicating possible brain herniation."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Trauma (Head Injury and Traumatic Brain Injury) NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Trauma Emergencies Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Neurologic Trauma Management
NEW QUESTION # 88
A 26-year-old patient is 26 weeks pregnant and has severe abdominal pain after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. There is minimal vaginal bleeding, and uterine contractions are present. What condition should the EMT suspect as the most likely cause of the patient ' s signs and symptoms?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Abruptio placenta (placental abruption).
This patient presents with classic signs of placental abruption, especially in the context of trauma:
* Severe abdominal pain
* History of trauma (MVC)
* Uterine contractions
* Minimal or concealed vaginal bleeding
Why C is correct (Abruptio placenta):
Placental abruption occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. It is strongly associated with trauma during pregnancy.
Key features include:
* Painful abdomen
* Uterine irritability or contractions
* Bleeding that may be minimal or concealed
NREMT-aligned guidance states:
* "Placental abruption is commonly associated with trauma and presents with abdominal pain and uterine contractions."
* "Bleeding may be minimal because it can be concealed behind the placenta." Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Placenta previa: Presents with painless vaginal bleeding, not abdominal pain or contractions.
* B. Ruptured uterus: Rare, usually associated with severe trauma or prior uterine surgery; presents with catastrophic signs.
* D. Spontaneous abortion: Occurs earlier in pregnancy (typically < 20 weeks), not at 26 weeks.
Exact Extracts:
* "Placental abruption presents with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding following trauma."
* "Bleeding may be concealed and not externally visible."
* "Uterine contractions and tenderness are common findings."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Medical / Obstetrics / Gynecology
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Obstetric Emergencies Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Obstetric Emergencies
NEW QUESTION # 89
A person grabs your arm during an argument. This is considered
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Battery.
This question tests knowledge of legal definitions relevant to EMS providers, particularly distinguishing between assault and battery.
* Battery is defined as unlawful physical contact with another person without consent.
* In this scenario, the act of grabbing your arm constitutes intentional physical contact, which meets the definition of battery.
According to NREMT-aligned EMS legal principles:
* "Battery is the unlawful touching of another person without consent." Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Harassment:Typically involves repeated or persistent unwanted behavior, not necessarily physical contact.
* B. Assault:Defined as threatening or attempting to cause harm, creating fear of imminent harm- without actual physical contact.
* D. False imprisonment:Involves restricting a person's freedom of movement without legal authority, not simply grabbing an arm.
Key NREMT Distinction:
* Assault = threat of harm
* Battery = actual physical contact
Exact Extracts:
* "Assault is placing a person in fear of immediate harm."
* "Battery is the unlawful touching of a patient without consent."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - EMS Operations / Legal & Ethical Issues NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - EMS Legal Concepts Standard EMT Text (aligned with NREMT): Workforce Safety and Legal Issues
NEW QUESTION # 90
What should you anticipate when you go in for a deposition?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A deposition is a formal legal proceeding in which sworn testimony is taken prior to trial. NREMT education on EMS operations, documentation, and legal responsibilities emphasizes that EMTs may be required to participate in depositions as part of civil or criminal cases involving patient care.
Option C is correct because attorneys for all involved parties are typically present during a deposition. These may include attorneys representing the plaintiff, defendant, EMS agency, or insurance providers. The EMT provides sworn testimony under oath, and the deposition may later be used in court.
Option A is incorrect because deposition testimony is admissible in court under many circumstances.
Option B is incorrect because depositions are not presided over by a judge; they are conducted by attorneys.
Option D is incorrect because exhibits such as patient care reports, protocols, or photographs may be introduced during a deposition.
NREMT stresses the importance of accurate documentation, professionalism, and honesty, as EMTs are legally accountable for their actions and statements.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
NREMT defines secondary prevention as actions taken to reduce the impact of a disease or injury after it has occurred, focusing on early intervention and harm reduction.
Option D is correct because educating the public on naloxone use does not prevent opioid addiction but reduces morbidity and mortality by reversing overdoses when they occur.
Option A and C are examples of primary prevention, which aim to prevent disease before it happens.
Option B is an operational task, not prevention.
NREMT emphasizes prevention roles as part of community paramedicine and public health integration.
NEW QUESTION # 92
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