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The National Register Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) cognitive test is a computer adaptive test (CAT).This means that each candidate is evaluated based on the position of the responses on a spectrum. Once a candidate gets the correct answers, the computer will automatically enter more difficult questions to continue testing the candidate's skill level. The number of items a candidate can expect from the EMT Exam will be between 70 and 120. Each exam will have between 60 and 110 “live” elements that will be counted towards the final score. The exam will also include 10 pilot questions that do not affect the final score. The maximum time allowed to complete the exam is 2 hours. To pass the exam, candidates must meet a standard skill level. The standard of success is defined by the ability to provide safe and effective entry-level emergency medical care.
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NEW QUESTION # 115
An Emergency Medical Responder is ventilating an apneic adult using a BVM. He is forcefully delivering each ventilation in less than 1 second. You should
Answer: B
Explanation:
NREMT guidelines specify that adult ventilations with a BVM should be delivered over approximately 1 second, just enough to see visible chest rise. Forceful, rapid ventilations increase the risk of gastric inflation, aspiration, barotrauma, and hypotension.
Option B is correct because slowing the rate and reducing force improves ventilation effectiveness and patient safety.
Option A may be important, but the primary error described is ventilation speed.
Option C is inappropriate for an apneic patient.
Option D is only indicated if the patient is pulseless.
NREMT emphasizes controlled, gentle ventilations to minimize complications.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following are signs or symptoms of a hypertensive emergency? Select the two answer options that are correct.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
For this one, focus on what makes hypertension an emergency rather than just a high blood pressure reading:
evidence of acute end-organ involvement . Two important clues are headache from possible neurologic involvement and orthopnea from possible acute pulmonary edema/heart failure . Authoritative references on hypertensive emergency describe it as severe hypertension with target-organ damage such as pulmonary edema and neurologic symptoms, and headache is a common presenting complaint while orthopnea points to pulmonary congestion. ( NCBI ) So in an EMT testing context, the best two choices are B. Orthopnea and E. Headache because they fit the pattern of a hypertensive crisis with serious organ-system effects, not just isolated elevated blood pressure. ( NCBI )
NEW QUESTION # 117
A mountain climber tells you that he came down from a hike because he was coughing up blood. You should suspect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)in a physically active person, such as a mountain climber, strongly suggests apulmonary embolism (PE), particularly due to:
* Dehydration
* Prolonged exertion or immobility
* High altitude increasing clot risk
Symptoms may include:
* Shortness of breath
* Chest pain
* Tachypnea
* Hemoptysis
Pulmonary edemagenerally causes pink frothy sputum and is more associated with heart failure.Neoplasm (lung cancer)is possible but much less acute in onset.Spontaneous pneumothoraxcauses dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain but not typically hemoptysis.
References:
NREMT Medical Assessment - Pulmonary and Hematologic Emergencies
AAOS EMT Textbook - Chapter: Respiratory Emergencies
CDC Guidelines - High-Risk Conditions for Pulmonary Embolism
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following is categorized as a personal injury prevention supply?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Personal injury prevention supplies are designed to protect EMS providers from physical injuries, rather than infection.
Option C (Pair of leather gloves) is correct because leather gloves protect against cuts, abrasions, and puncture injuries during rescue operations such as vehicle extrication.
Option D (N95 respirator) is personal protective equipment (PPE) for infection control, not injury prevention.
Option A and B are related to biohazard handling and decontamination.
NREMT differentiates PPE from injury-prevention equipment to ensure proper risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 119
A 5-year-old patient was stung by a bee and has urticaria and dyspnea. Wheezing is auscultated. What medication and dose should the EMT administer first?
Answer: C
Explanation:
**
This patient has signs of anaphylaxis , not just a mild allergic reaction: bee sting exposure , urticaria , dyspnea , and wheezing . In NREMT-aligned EMT education, epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it treats the life-threatening airway and breathing problem by bronchodilation and also helps reverse vasodilation and capillary leak.
For EMT-level medication guidance, the national EMT refresher curriculum specifically lists epinephrine auto-injector dosing as: adult = 0.3 mg and infant/child = 0.15 mg . Since the patient is 5 years old , the correct pediatric dose is 0.15 mg , making D the correct answer.
The albuterol options are not the best first answer here. Albuterol may help wheezing from bronchospasm, but in anaphylaxis the priority medication is epinephrine first , because the problem is a systemic allergic reaction that can rapidly worsen and affect the airway and circulation. NREMT education guidance explicitly emphasizes epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.
Why the other options are wrong:
A). Albuterol 0.5 mg - not the standard EMT answer here, and not first-line for anaphylaxis.
B). Albuterol 2.5 mg - this is a common nebulized albuterol dose, but it is still not the first medication for anaphylaxis.
C). Epinephrine 0.3 mg - this is the adult auto-injector dose, not the usual pediatric dose listed in EMT national curriculum materials.
D). Epinephrine 0.15 mg - correct pediatric first-line treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 120
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