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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Incident Response and Management	24%	- Incident Handling and Investigation 1. Incident Response Lifecycle and Frameworks 2. Evidence Collection and Forensic Fundamentals 3. Post-Incident Activities and Lessons Learned 4. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
Vulnerability Management	26%	- Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation 1. Cloud and Container Security Vulnerabilities 2. Remediation Verification and Tracking 3. Vulnerability Scanning and Assessment 4. Vulnerability Prioritization and Risk Assessment
Reporting and Communication	16%	- Documentation and Stakeholder Communication 1. Security Reporting and Documentation 2. Risk Communication to Technical and Business Audiences 3. Incident Reporting Requirements and Compliance
Security Operations	34%	- Security Monitoring and Analysis 1. Endpoint, Network, and Cloud Monitoring 2. System and Network Architecture Security 3. SIEM Implementation and Analysis 4. SOAR, EDR, and XDR Concepts 5. Threat Detection and Threat Hunting

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q121-Q126):

NEW QUESTION # 121
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is notified of an ongoing incident.
Which of the following explains why the CISO instructs the Chief Executive Officer not to discuss the incident over email?

A. The email system may be compromised.
B. The CISO has not notified the public relations team of the incident.
C. The security team discovered a vulnerability in the Short Message Service email gateway.
D. Emails are not encrypted in transit.

Answer: A

Explanation:
During an active cybersecurity incident, responders must assume that systems associated with the compromise may no longer provide trustworthy confidentiality or integrity until their status has been established. If the incident could involve the organization's email infrastructure, discussing response strategy, investigative findings, affected assets, or containment actions through corporate email could unintentionally provide the attacker with intelligence about the organization's response.
Therefore, the email system may be compromised is the strongest explanation. Incident-response communication plans should define approved communication methods, relevant stakeholders, escalation paths, and alternative communication channels so responders can continue coordinating when ordinary enterprise systems are unavailable or untrusted. NIST's current incident-response guidance emphasizes integrating communication and stakeholder coordination throughout response activities.
Option C is too broad. Modern email commonly uses transport encryption, although encryption alone would not make a compromised mailbox or server trustworthy. Option D concerns public-relations coordination but does not explain why email itself should be avoided. Option A describes a specific gateway vulnerability that the scenario does not establish.
The core principle is out-of-band communication : when normal communication infrastructure may be under attacker control, responders should use a previously approved independent channel.
Study Guide Reference: Reporting and Communication # Incident Communications # Communication Plan
# Out-of-Band Communications # Stakeholder Coordination # Compromised Communication Channels.

NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is the term for a predefined set of automated actions that incident responders and SOC analysts can use to enhance operations?

A. CVSS
B. Detection set
C. Threat modeling
D. Playbooks

Answer: D

Explanation:
Playbooks define predefined, often automated, response actions that incident responders and SOC analysts follow to standardize and enhance security operations.

NEW QUESTION # 123
A security analyst IS comparing the results of the past and current active credentialed vulnerability scans:
Past scan:

Current scan:

Which of the following should the analyst do next?

A. Create a new entry on the risk register saying that all significant risks have been mitigated.
B. Request an unauthenticated scan to confirm that vulnerabilities have been patched.
C. Inform management about the risk that the company's assets will be used to perform attacks.
D. Try to avoid a data leak by immediately creating a self-signed TLS certificate to patch the NTP system.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The current scan shows that a previously low-severity SSL vulnerability has increased to a high- severity (9.1) issue with potential information disclosure. This means the organization now faces a significantly greater risk than before. Management must be informed because the company's assets could be leveraged in attacks or suffer data exposure, and leadership needs awareness to prioritize remediation.

NEW QUESTION # 124
The website of a large retail chain is falling to enforce encrypted HTTPS connections, leaving customer account credentials exposed. Which of the following is the best corrective action for resolving this issue?

A. Remove any redirect settings of HTTP connections to HTTPS.
B. Install a self-signed certificate on the web server.
C. Implement HTTP Strict Transport Security Headers.
D. Reduce the default timeout period for all web-based sessions.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Enabling HTTP Strict Transport Security forces browsers to use HTTPS exclusively, preventing any unencrypted HTTP connections. This ensures customer credentials cannot be transmitted in plaintext and corrects the failure to enforce secure connections.

NEW QUESTION # 125
A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:

Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

A. Restore files from backup.
B. Establish a timeline.
C. Establish a legal hold.
D. Perform log correlation.
E. Reset user credentials.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A legal hold preserves potentially relevant files, logs, and other evidence from alteration or deletion before the investigation proceeds.

NEW QUESTION # 126
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