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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Monitoring and Troubleshooting | 10% | - Performance and issue diagnosis - Log and alert troubleshooting - System monitoring and health checks |
| Integration and Security Fabric | 15% | - FortiXDR deployment and configuration - Fortinet Security Fabric integration |
| Security Settings and Policies | 25% | - Security policies configuration - Playbooks creation and management - Fortinet Cloud Service (FCS) integration - Communication control policies |
| FortiEDR System Architecture and Deployment | 25% | - Inventory management and system tools - Multi-tenancy deployment - Installation and deployment process - API-based management operations - Architecture and technical positioning |
| Events, Forensics, and Threat Hunting | 25% | - Forensic analysis and incident investigation - Threat hunting profiles and queries - Security event and alert analysis - Threat hunting data interpretation |
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NEW QUESTION # 30
Refer to the exhibits.
You are attempting to move a collector into the High Security Collector Group for isolation but encounter an error in the API request as shown in the exhibit. To successfully isolate the collector, which API parameter must you correct? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Set the organization parameter to Default .
From the first exhibit, the API query result for the Collector shows:
* Collector name: Desktop-PC
* Collector group name: Engineering
* Organization: Default
* State: Running
But in the second exhibit, the API request is using:
* organization = Fortinet-Training
* collectors = Desktop-PC
* targetCollectorGroup = High Security Collector Group
That organization value is wrong. The Collector belongs to the Default organization, so the API request must reference the Collector's actual organization. Otherwise FortiEDR cannot locate or move that Collector under the organization specified in the request.
The FortiEDR guide confirms that Collector Groups are used to assign different FortiEDR policies to different Collectors, and that Collectors can be moved between groups/organizations in the Inventory workflow. In Hoster view, FortiEDR shows Collectors from all organizations and allows moving Collectors between organizations, but the organization context must match the Collector being managed.
Option B is wrong because the exhibit shows the API request is authorized; the failure is a 400 Bad Request , not an authentication failure. Option C is wrong because the endpoint shown is already a move/update operation using PUT, and the issue is not the HTTP method. Option D is wrong because Engineering is the current Collector Group. The goal is to move the Collector to High Security Collector Group , so changing the target back to Engineering would not isolate or harden the Collector.
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NEW QUESTION # 31
A collector attempts to access a known malicious website. FortiEDR is configured for eXtended detection with FortiAnalyzer. What two roles does Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) perform in this process? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The guide states that for eXtended Detection Source integration, FortiEDR connects to external systems to collect activity logs. The aggregated data is then sent to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) , where it is correlated and analyzed to detect malicious indications. Those malicious indications result in security events for eXtended Detection policy rule violations .
For FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud specifically, the guide states that this integration is used to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended Detection alerts .
Option A is wrong because FCS does not send the original log record to FortiAnalyzer. FortiAnalyzer is the external source whose data is correlated with FortiEDR data. Option B is wrong because OS metadata is collected by the Collector and handled through FortiEDR components; the FCS role here is cloud-side enrichment, correlation, and detection, not sending OS metadata back to the manager.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 32
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 33
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two observations are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: "Classification change: Malicious" and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.
The exhibit also states that the file was "Detected as Unknown malware." This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification.
The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so "unknown malware" can still be classified malicious by FCS.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.
=========
NEW QUESTION # 34
You added three new applications to FortiEDR using only the Path attribute. What are two expected outcomes of this configuration? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that newly added applications are disabled by default , which means they are not blocked unless enabled. The guide further explains that the default state can be changed by enabling the Enable Default application state option in the Application Control Manager settings. Therefore, option A is correct.
Option B is also correct because Application Control allows an application to be defined by Hash or by any combination of File Name / Path / Signer . The guide says that the Path field specifies the path to the executable file of the application to be blocked. When using path-based matching, the enforcement is tied to the specified path criteria, not to every possible location of the same file.
Option C is wrong because the file name does not also need to match when only the Path attribute is used.
Option D is wrong because blocking all instances regardless of location applies when only the File Name field is used, not when the match is path-specific. The guide explicitly states that if only the File Name field is filled, the application is blocked no matter where the executable appears.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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