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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | 50% | - Professional Behaviours - Psychosocial Aspects - Communication - Management |
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Acute Care - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention - Assessment and Diagnosis - Chronic Care |
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NEW QUESTION # 302
A 78-year-old man, who is accompanied by his eldest son, presents for follow-up of his chronic kidney disease and neurocognitive disorder due to vascular disease. He is married and has 4 children. His creatinine clearance has slowly deteriorated over the last few years and has reached the stage where you are considering starting renal replacement therapy. After your discussion, it is clear that the patient, his son, and his wife want to start dialysis. Based on your assessment, it is clear that he does not understand the information you have relayed to him. You inform the patient that you believe he is incapable of making this decision and he agrees.
His son would prefer not to start dialysis as he is concerned about the impact this would have on his father's quality of life. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient has been assessed as incapable of making the decision regarding dialysis. MCCQE ELOM objectives emphasize that when a patient lacks decision-making capacity, treatment decisions must be made by a legally authorized substitute decision-maker (SDM) according to provincial/territorial hierarchy. The appropriate next step is to determine whether a formal SDM has been appointed (e.g., power of attorney for personal care) or identify the legally ranked default SDM.
Although the wife may often be the default SDM, this depends on jurisdiction and whether a formal representative has been designated. It is inappropriate to automatically follow the son's wishes, as he may not be the legal SDM. Nor should the physician impose their own recommendation without engaging the proper decision-making process. A large family meeting may be helpful later but does not replace identifying the legally authorized decision-maker.
Once identified, the SDM must make decisions based on the patient's prior capable wishes or, if unknown, the patient's best interests. Properly establishing the SDM ensures ethical and legal compliance in incapacity situations.
NEW QUESTION # 303
A 47-year-old man has been training for a marathon. After a long run, he develops mild pain and swelling in his left knee. Examination shows a mild joint effusion and a soft tissue mass in the popliteal fossa. The knee radiograph is normal. Which one of the following is the best method of confirming the diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient's presentation-knee effusion with a soft tissue mass in the popliteal fossa following exertion-is classic for a Baker (popliteal) cyst , which represents distention of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa, often associated with intra-articular pathology (e.g., meniscal injury or osteoarthritis). MCCQE objectives emphasize selecting the least invasive, most appropriate imaging modality to confirm suspected cystic lesions.
Ultrasound is the best initial diagnostic test because it is noninvasive, readily available, and highly sensitive for distinguishing a cystic structure from a solid mass or vascular pathology (e.g., popliteal artery aneurysm or deep vein thrombosis). It can also assess for complications such as cyst rupture.
Arthroscopy is invasive and not required for diagnosis. Arthrocentesis evaluates joint effusion but does not confirm a popliteal cyst. Aspiration of the mass without imaging is inappropriate due to risk of vascular injury. CT is unnecessary and exposes the patient to radiation.
Therefore, ultrasound is the preferred method to confirm a Baker cyst.
NEW QUESTION # 304
A young man and woman who are in a relationship present to the office for prenatal counselling. During the visit, you observe that the man ' s lips appear as shown in the referenced photo.
[Image shows grouped vesicular lesions on erythematous base affecting the lips-classic for herpes labialis (HSV-1).] Which one of the following is the best advice?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The patient shows signs of herpes labialis (HSV-1), which can transmit genital herpes via oral sex. This poses a risk to the fetus if maternal infection occurs during pregnancy, especially near delivery. Preventing new genital HSV infection during pregnancy is critical.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"HSV-1 can cause genital herpes via oral-genital transmission. Avoid oral sex during outbreaks in pregnancy to prevent primary maternal infection." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Infectious Disease in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must understand the importance of preventing new HSV infection during pregnancy and counsel appropriately." Culture (A) is not useful unless symptomatic. Serology (B) is not needed in this context. Cesarean (D) is not indicated unless active genital lesions at delivery. Acyclovir (C) is for infected mothers or near delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 305
A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her persistent primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura. She was admitted to hospital with a relapse and received treatment with dexamethasone, intravenous immunoglobulin, and rituximab. She was recently discharged from hospital with a platelet count of 55 × 10#/L (130-360), and also continues to take 10 mg of prednisone once daily. She is scheduled for a splenectomy in 4 weeks. Which one of the following is the best next step in preparation for the patient ' s surgical procedure?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Patients undergoing splenectomy are at lifelong risk for overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), particularly from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Neisseria meningitidis is recommended at least 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology / Surgery:
"Patients undergoing elective splenectomy should receive vaccines against pneumococcus, H. influenzae type b, and meningococcus at least 2 weeks before surgery." MCCQE1 Objectives (Hematology > 38-2: Thrombocytopenia and Splenectomy):
"Candidates must ensure vaccination prior to splenectomy to prevent postsplenectomy sepsis." Calcium (B) may be considered in chronic steroid users but is not the priority. Azithromycin (C) is not indicated. D is unsafe without tapering. E is only for acute bleeding or extremely low platelets.
NEW QUESTION # 306
A 26-year-old man presents to your office with fever, chills, and malaise. Aside from an episode of dysuria 8 weeks ago, which spontaneously resolved, he has been healthy. On examination, his left wrist and right ankle are tender. There is a cluster of vesiculopustular lesions on his right hand. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) typically presents with the classic triad of polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and skin lesions (especially pustules on extremities). A prior urogenital infection and systemic symptoms further support this diagnosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Disease, STIs:
"DGI presents with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome: fever, asymmetric polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and vesiculopustular skin lesions. It may follow asymptomatic or unrecognized urogenital infection." MCCQE1 Objectives - Infectious Disease > STIs:
"Candidates must recognize systemic manifestations of gonorrhea including DGI and distinguish it from other forms of arthritis or systemic illness." Reactive arthritis (C) may follow STI but includes conjunctivitis and urethritis. HIV (A) does not typically cause this triad. RA (D) has different distribution and chronicity. Varicella (E) presents with diffuse vesicular rash, not joint pain.
NEW QUESTION # 307
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