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>> CPHRM Original Questions <<
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NEW QUESTION # 50
When considering the proper insurance to purchase for an organization and its practitioners, a risk manager should understand which of the following about specific types of coverage?
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, occurrence coverage provides protection for incidents that occur during the policy period, regardless of when the claim is reported. The triggering event is the date of the occurrence. As long as the alleged act or omission took place while the policy was in force, coverage applies even if the claim is filed years later.
Option A is incorrect because occurrence coverage does not extend to incidents that occur prior to the policy's effective date. Coverage is strictly tied to the policy period.
Option C is incorrect because in claims-made coverage, the retroactive date is critical. Coverage applies only to claims made during the policy period for incidents that occurred on or after the retroactive date.
Option D is incorrect because the "nose" period, also known as prior acts coverage, is highly significant in claims-made policies. It determines whether earlier acts are covered when switching carriers.
Risk financing objectives emphasize understanding policy triggers, retroactive dates, and reporting requirements. Therefore, occurrence coverage applies to incidents that occur while the policy is in effect.
NEW QUESTION # 51
What are risk treatment strategies?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Core risk treatment strategies includeavoidance(stop the activity),reduction/mitigation(controls that reduce likelihood/severity),retention(accept risk within appetite and fund losses via reserves/self-insurance), and transfer(contracts/insurance shifting financial consequences). In healthcare, the highest priority is often mitigation for patient safety risks (standardization, technology, training), with financing mechanisms ensuring the organization can absorb residual loss without destabilizing operations. ERM aligns these strategies to enterprise objectives so leadership invests in the best mix of prevention and financing.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following are common techniques used to include patients and families in programs to educate patients about their safety?
* lay persons on select committees
* patient education opportunities
* patient events referred for peer review
* event reporting by patients and families
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, patient and family engagement is a critical element of patient safety programs. Including lay persons on select committees, such as patient safety or quality committees, allows patients and families to contribute perspectives that enhance transparency and system improvement.
Structured patient education opportunities empower individuals to understand their care, ask questions, and actively participate in safety practices, such as medication verification and infection prevention.
Event reporting by patients and families is another proactive strategy that promotes open communication and early identification of safety concerns. Encouraging patients to report perceived errors or near misses supports a culture of safety and partnership.
Referring patient events for peer review is an internal professional evaluation process focused on provider performance and quality improvement. While important for clinical oversight, it is not a technique designed to directly include patients and families in educational safety programs.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize collaboration, transparency, and patient-centered care.
Therefore, inclusion of lay persons on committees, patient education initiatives, and patient or family event reporting are appropriate techniques for involving patients in safety programs.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles recognized by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a properly executed advance directive carries legal authority when a patient lacks decision-making capacity. The physician has assessed that the patient is terminally ill and lacks capacity, triggering activation of the advance directive. If the directive clearly states refusal of life-prolonging treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration, those wishes must be honored in accordance with state law and the Patient Self-Determination Act framework.
Patient autonomy is a foundational ethical and legal principle in health care. Once capacity is lost, previously expressed wishes through a valid advance directive govern care decisions. Family members do not have authority to override a valid directive unless legal defects or ambiguity exist. Their disagreement does not negate the patient's documented preferences.
Although ethics consultation can be helpful in managing conflict, the directive here is described as properly executed and clear. Additional determination of capacity is unnecessary because the physician has already made that assessment.
Risk management objectives emphasize compliance with advance directive statutes, respect for patient autonomy, and reduction of liability through adherence to documented patient wishes. Therefore, the appropriate advice is to support the physician in honoring the advance directive.
NEW QUESTION # 54
An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, obligations under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act EMTALA govern on-call physician responsibilities. When a hospital maintains an on-call roster to provide specialty services for emergency department patients, physicians listed on call are required to respond and participate in the evaluation and stabilization of patients with emergency medical conditions.
An on-call physician may only be relieved of duty if legitimately unavailable due to circumstances beyond their control, such as actively caring for another patient or being otherwise unable to respond in accordance with hospital policy. Refusal to treat for convenience or non-clinical reasons may constitute an EMTALA violation and expose both the hospital and physician to regulatory penalties.
A blanket right to refuse care is inconsistent with EMTALA requirements. While financial discrimination is prohibited, refusal for other non-justifiable reasons may still violate federal law. Conversely, stating that a physician is never relieved of duty is inaccurate, as legitimate unavailability may excuse performance under specific circumstances.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize compliance with EMTALA, proper on-call coverage policies, and documentation of availability. Therefore, the correct statement is that relief occurs only when the physician is unavailable due to circumstances outside their control.
NEW QUESTION # 55
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