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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:ASHRM (American Society for Healthcare Risk Management)
Exam Name:Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management Exam
Exam Number:CPHRM
Available Languages:English
Exam Price:$275 (ASHRM members), $425 (non-members)
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Real Exam Qty:110 (100 scored, 10 unscored pre-test items)
Exam Duration:120 minutes
Passing Score:Criterion-referenced, no fixed numerical score published
Exam Format:Multiple-choice questions, Computer-based
Recommended Training:CPHRM Exam Prep Course
Exam Registration:PSI Testing Registration
ASHRM Official CPHRM Page
Sample Questions:ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions
Exam Way:Onsite at PSI testing centers or live remote proctored online
Pre Condition:One of: Bachelor's degree + 5 years healthcare experience; Associate degree + 7 years; High school diploma + 9 years; plus 3,000 hours or 50% of job duties in healthcare risk management within last 3 years
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.ashrm.org/education/cphrm

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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.
Topic 2
  • Clinical
  • Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
Topic 3
  • Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.
Topic 4
  • Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.
Topic 5
  • Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.

ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q53-Q58):

NEW QUESTION # 53
A hospital's Ethics Committee is seeking advice on a case involving the elective sterilization of an adolescent patient who is developmentally disabled. One of the parents is refusing consent. The risk manager should evaluate which of the following?
* who has consent authority
* competency level of the patient
* diagnosis of the patient
* state statutes and laws

Answer: D

Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, cases involving sterilization of minors, particularly those who are developmentally disabled, raise significant legal and regulatory concerns. The risk manager's primary responsibility is to ensure compliance with applicable consent laws and protect patient rights while minimizing organizational liability.
First, determining who has legal consent authority is essential. When parents disagree, state law typically governs whether both parents must consent, whether one parent's consent is sufficient, or whether court involvement is required. Second, evaluating the competency level of the patient is critical because decision- making capacity influences whether the patient can participate in consent or assent processes. Capacity assessments may require clinical and legal evaluation.
Third, state statutes and laws are highly relevant, as many jurisdictions impose strict legal requirements or court approval for sterilization of minors or individuals with developmental disabilities. These laws are designed to protect vulnerable populations.
The patient's diagnosis alone is not the determining legal factor; rather, decision-making capacity and statutory requirements are central. Therefore, the risk manager must evaluate consent authority, competency, and applicable state laws to ensure regulatory compliance and ethical integrity.


NEW QUESTION # 54
For a risk management program to be effective, it needs:

Answer: C

Explanation:
Effective risk management requires more than tools-it needs organizational commitment (tone at the top), operational visibility (access to events, leaders, data), and physician engagement because many high-severity risks involve medical decision-making and clinical leadership. Risk management objectives include preventing harm (patient safety), reducing financial loss (claims and insurance costs), ensuring compliance, and building a learning culture. Without executive and board support, corrective actions stall; without visibility, emerging risks are missed; without physician buy-in, clinical process redesign fails. Successful programs integrate with quality, patient safety, compliance, legal, and operations, and they use structured methods (RCA/FMEA, audits, claims trend analysis) to drive measurable improvement. This also strengthens defensibility: it shows governance, action, and continuous improvement-key elements in regulatory review and litigation.


NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following concerns meets the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation 42 CFR §482.12 classification as a grievance?

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation define a grievance as a formal or informal written or verbal complaint made by a patient or representative regarding care, abuse, neglect, compliance with regulations, or patient rights that is not resolved at the time of the complaint by staff present.
A verbal complaint that cannot be resolved immediately by current staff and whose resolution is postponed qualifies as a grievance under 42 CFR §482.12. Such grievances require formal investigation, documentation, and written response within established timeframes.
Billing issues generally fall outside the grievance definition unless they involve quality of care or patient rights concerns. Information from patient satisfaction surveys is not automatically classified as a grievance unless the patient specifically requests investigation or follow-up. Post-discharge verbal concerns may constitute grievances depending on context, but the key CMS criterion is whether the complaint could not be resolved at the time it was expressed.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize proper classification, timely response, documentation, and board oversight of grievance processes. Therefore, a verbal complaint that cannot be resolved immediately and is deferred meets CMS grievance criteria.


NEW QUESTION # 56
A subpoena duces tecum requires the recipient to
* produce specified documents.
* appear at a deposition or trial.
* provide a list of all parties involved.
* disclose the names of expert witnesses.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Within Health Care Risk Management practice as outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, understanding legal process documents is essential to effective claims management and litigation response. A subpoena duces tecum is a court-issued legal instrument requiring an individual or organization to produce specified documents, records, or tangible evidence relevant to a legal proceeding.
In many jurisdictions, a subpoena duces tecum may also require the recipient to appear at a deposition, hearing, or trial while producing the requested documents. The key distinguishing feature is the command to bring documents or evidence. Compliance is mandatory unless successfully challenged or quashed by the court.
Providing a list of all parties involved or disclosing expert witness identities are generally handled through formal discovery processes such as interrogatories, requests for production, or court-ordered disclosures, not specifically by a subpoena duces tecum.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize prompt review of subpoenas, coordination with legal counsel, protection of privileged information, and timely compliance to avoid sanctions. Therefore, a subpoena duces tecum requires production of specified documents and may also compel appearance, making options 1 and 2 correct.


NEW QUESTION # 57
The first layer of insurance that will respond to a specific type of loss or exposure is called

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, insurance coverage for liability exposures is often structured in layers. The first layer of insurance that responds to a covered loss is known as the primary policy.
Primary insurance provides initial coverage once any applicable deductible or self-insured retention has been satisfied. It is responsible for defense and indemnity payments up to the policy's stated per-occurrence and aggregate limits. Only after the primary policy limits are exhausted do excess or umbrella policies respond.
Terms such as baseline, foundation, and frontline are not recognized technical classifications in layered insurance structures. In professional and general liability programs, organizations commonly maintain a primary layer followed by one or more excess layers to protect against catastrophic losses.
Risk financing objectives emphasize understanding policy structure, limits, attachment points, and coordination between layers to ensure adequate protection of organizational assets. Therefore, the correct term for the first layer of insurance that responds to a loss is the primary policy.


NEW QUESTION # 58
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