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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|
| Security Operations | 34% | - Threat Intelligence and Hunting
- 1. Threat hunting, detection, and response tools
- 2. Threat intelligence concepts and sources
- Security Operations and Architecture
- 1. Indicators of malicious activity and analysis
- 2. Logging, monitoring, and network architecture
|
| Incident Response and Management | 24% | - Incident Investigation
- 1. Post-incident activities and lessons learned
- 2. Digital evidence and forensic considerations
- Incident Response Processes
- 1. Incident detection, containment, eradication, and recovery
- 2. Incident response tools and techniques
|
| Vulnerability Management | 26% | - Vulnerability Assessment
- 1. Vulnerability analysis and validation
- 2. Scanning methods and vulnerability identification
- Vulnerability Response
- 1. Risk prioritization and remediation
- 2. Security controls and mitigation
|
| Reporting and Communication | 16% | - Reporting
- 1. Vulnerability and incident reports
- 2. Metrics, trends, and recommendations
- Communication
- 1. Stakeholder communication and escalation
- 2. Technical and executive-level communication
|
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q163-Q168):
NEW QUESTION # 163
A company's Zero Trust network requires reauthentication with MFA every two hours. Which of the following is an advantage of this architecture?
- A. Rotates the encryption key to prevent brute forcing
- B. Increases the accuracy of user and device asset inventories
- C. Reduces the time an attacker can use compromised credentials
- D. Prevents the recurring use of rainbow tables
Answer: C
Explanation:
Requiring MFA reauthentication every two hours limits the duration of a user's authenticated session. If an attacker obtains valid credentials or hijacks an active session, the attacker will have only a limited window of access before reauthentication is required, reducing the potential impact of compromised credentials.
NEW QUESTION # 164
A vulnerability analyst conducts a web application scan on an asset sitting behind a load balancer configured as a pass through:
http://10.203.20.10
The analyst launches the Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP) utility, conducts a scan, and receives the following alert:

Which of the following should the analyst propose as a remediation to the finding while keeping the site operational?
- A. Ensure the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) endpoint is protected with a network firewall with geo-blocking.
- B. Ensure the load balancer is configured with online certificate status protocol (OCSP) stapling.
- C. Ensure the web application is configured to suppress the "Server" header.
- D. Ensure the web server host-based firewall is configured to block HTTP incoming traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Suppressing the Server response header prevents disclosure of web-server version information without blocking legitimate access or disrupting the site.
NEW QUESTION # 165
An analyst receives the following output:

Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?
Answer: A
Explanation:
TCP port 80 carries unencrypted HTTP traffic and is open on 10.203.20.15 and 10.203.20.10.
SSH on port 22 and HTTPS on port 443 are encrypted.
NEW QUESTION # 166
An incident response team investigates a possible data leak. Various IT systems collect evidence.
Which of the following processes is required to ensure that evidentiary artifacts are properly recorded?
- A. Packaging and labeling
- B. Chain of custody
- C. Post incident reporting
- D. Storage and containment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Chain of custody is the formal process used to document the collection, possession, transfer, handling, analysis, and disposition of evidentiary artifacts. Its purpose is to establish an auditable history demonstrating who controlled the evidence, when custody changed, why it was transferred, and what actions were performed on it.
NIST defines chain of custody as tracking evidence throughout its collection, safeguarding, and analysis lifecycle while documenting each individual who handled it, relevant timestamps, and the purpose of transfers. This is critical when multiple systems, analysts, forensic teams, or external parties participate in an investigation because undocumented handling could undermine confidence in the evidence's integrity or admissibility.
Packaging and labeling are important evidence-preservation procedures, but they represent only individual activities within the broader evidence-management process. Storage and containment protect artifacts from alteration or unauthorized access but do not provide the complete historical record of possession. Post- incident reporting documents investigation conclusions and response actions after the incident rather than tracking evidence throughout its lifecycle.
The decisive phrase is "properly recorded." A defensible record of every evidence transfer and handler is specifically the function of chain of custody.
Study Guide Reference: Incident Response and Management # Digital Forensics # Evidence Acquisition # Chain of Custody # Evidence Integrity # Documentation and Preservation.
NEW QUESTION # 167
A security analyst responds to an alert regarding identity and access management activity within the cloud environment. The attacker is currently trying to gain access from one isolated cloud subscription to another via a compromised user role. Which of the following aspects of the MITRE ATT&CK framework is the attacker trying to perform?
- A. Lateral movement
- B. Privilege escalation
- C. Persistence
- D. Credential access
- E. Execution
Answer: A
Explanation:
The attacker is using a compromised role to move from one cloud subscription to another, which is lateral movement between environments.
NEW QUESTION # 168
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