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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Vulnerability Management | 34% | - Vulnerability identification
|
| Incident Response and Management | 33% | - Incident handling lifecycle
|
| Security Operations | 33% | - Monitoring security environments
|
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NEW QUESTION # 374
An organization has activated the CSIRT. A security analyst believes a single virtual server was compromised and immediately isolated from the network. Which of the following should the CSIRT conduct next?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server's data and state at a specific point in time.
Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 375
A security analyst is improving an organization's vulnerability management program. The analyst cross- checks the current reports with the system's infrastructure teams, but the reports do not accurately reflect the current patching levels. Which of the following will most likely correct the report errors?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Credentialed vulnerability scans allow the scanner to log into systems and retrieve accurate information about installed patches and configurations. If the reports do not reflect current patching levels, it is likely that the scan is being performed without credentials, leading to incomplete or inaccurate results.
* Option A (Updating the scanning engine) ensures the tool has the latest detection capabilities but does not directly affect scan accuracy for missing patches.
* Option B (Centralized patching) helps maintain consistency but does not correct reporting errors.
* Option D (Resetting plug-ins) may be useful if plug-ins are outdated, but the primary issue is lack of privileged access during scanning.
Thus, C is the correct answer, as credentialed scans provide more accurate vulnerability assessments.
NEW QUESTION # 376
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing SIEM logs and observes consistent requests originating from an internal host to a blocklisted external server. Which of the following best describes the activity that is taking place?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Beaconing is the best term to describe the activity that is taking place, as it refers to the periodic communication between an infected host and a blocklisted external server. Beaconing is a common technique used by malware to establish a connection with a command-and-control (C2) server, which can provide instructions, updates, or exfiltration capabilities to the malware.
Beaconing can vary in frequency, duration, and payload, depending on the type and sophistication of the malware. The other terms are not as accurate as beaconing, as they describe different aspects of malicious activity. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a compromised system to an external destination, such as a C2 server or a cloud storage service. Data exfiltration can be a goal or a consequence of malware infection, but it does not necessarily involve blocklisted servers or consistent requests. Rogue device is a device that is connected to a network without authorization or proper security controls. Rogue devices can pose a security risk, as they can introduce malware, bypass firewalls, or access sensitive data.
However, rogue devices are not necessarily infected with malware or communicating with blocklisted servers. Scanning is the process of probing a network or a system for vulnerabilities, open ports, services, or other information. Scanning can be performed by legitimate administrators or malicious actors, depending on the intent and authorization. Scanning does not imply consistent requests or blocklisted servers, as it can target any network or system.
NEW QUESTION # 377
Which of the following is a nation-state actor least likely to be concerned with?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A nation-state actor is a group or individual that conducts cyberattacks on behalf of a government or a political entity. They are usually motivated by national interests, such as espionage, sabotage, or influence operations. They are often highly skilled, resourced, and persistent, and they operate with the protection or support of their state sponsors. Therefore, they are less likely to be concerned with the forensic analysis for legal action of their actions, as they are unlikely to face prosecution or extradition in their own country or by international law. They are more likely to be concerned with the detection by the MITRE ATT & CK framework, which is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.
The MITRE ATT & CK framework can help defenders identify, prevent, and respond to cyberattacks by nation-state actors. They are also likely to be concerned with the detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities, which are the preliminary steps of cyberattacks that involve gathering information about the target, such as vulnerabilities, network topology, or user credentials. Reconnaissance activities can expose the presence, intent, and capabilities of the attackers, and allow defenders to take countermeasures. Finally, they are likely to be concerned with the examination of their actions and objectives, which can reveal their motives, strategies, and goals, and help defenders understand their threat profile and attribution.
References:
1: MITRE ATT & CK®
2: What is the MITRE ATT & CK Framework? | IBM
3: MITRE ATT & CK | MITRE
4: Cyber Forensics Explained: Reasons, Phases & Challenges of Cyber Forensics | Splunk
5: Digital Forensics: How to Identify the Cause of a Cyber Attack - G2
NEW QUESTION # 378
The vulnerability analyst reviews threat intelligence regarding emerging vulnerabilities affecting workstations that are used within the company:
Which of the following vulnerabilities should the analyst be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Vulnerability B is the vulnerability that the analyst should be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email. Vulnerability B is a remote code execution vulnerability in Microsoft Outlook that allows an attacker to run arbitrary code on the target system by sending a specially crafted email message. This vulnerability is very dangerous, as it does not require any user interaction or attachment opening to trigger the exploit. The attacker only needs to send an email to the victim's Outlook account, and the code will execute automatically when Outlook connects to the Exchange server. This vulnerability has a high severity rating of 9.8 out of 10, and it affects all supported versions of Outlook.
Therefore, the analyst should prioritize patching this vulnerability as soon as possible to prevent potential compromise of the workstations.
NEW QUESTION # 379
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